How to remove one owner from joint owned property?

RomfordNavy

Keep_pedalling said:

The house would be disregarded anyway as long as the younger fitter owner was living there.

Would like to think so but from what we have read that is not the case.

GDB2222

RomfordNavy said:

Keep_pedalling said:

The house would be disregarded anyway as long as the younger fitter owner was living there.

Would like to think so but from what we have read that is not the case.

Perhaps you should have a look at the AgeUK website 
https://www.ageuk.org.uk/information-advice/care/paying-for-care/paying-for-a-care-home/do-i-have-to-sell-my-home-to-pay-for-care/

Check the section beginning :-

Will my home have to be included in the means test?

Keep_pedalling

RomfordNavy said:

Keep_pedalling said:

The house would be disregarded anyway as long as the younger fitter owner was living there.

Would like to think so but from what we have read that is not the case.

If this is the reason to implement this foolish move then you are seriously misinformed. The person concerned should do nothing without taking independent professional advice.

getmore4less

Not clear what problem(s) this is trying to fix.

One advantage of two owners is you don't need Probate to deal with the property on first death, which could be the new sole owner.

RomfordNavy

GDB2222 said:

Perhaps you should have a look at the AgeUK website 
https://www.ageuk.org.uk/information-advice/care/paying-for-care/paying-for-a-care-home/do-i-have-to-sell-my-home-to-pay-for-care/

Check the section beginning :-

Will my home have to be included in the means test?

Interesting but still a bit vague:

"your home will not be included if, for example, your partner still lives there or, in certain circumstances, a relative."

BooJewels

This is from one of the sample contract documents sent to me by Lancashire County Council when we were negotiating my father's care home funding, in respect of whether your home is taken into consideration.  I suspect county councils perhaps all have their own version of this.  I have a more detailed version in a print booklet from them, but it's not to hand. So I don't think it's as simple as if someone else lives there it is disregarded.   For example, when my Mum went into care, the house was never discussed, as my Dad still lived there (item 1) - but it ended up on the table when Dad went into care, as Mum had passed by then, so no one was living in it then.

 We take your home into account only after your first 12 weeks as a permanent resident in a care home.

We do not take it into account at all if:

1. your partner or civil partner still lives there

2. a relative still lives there who;

* is aged 60 or over or;

* is aged under 18 and a child whom you would be liable to maintain or
* is incapacitated

3. if you are only staying in a care home for a short time and you intend to go back to your own home later.

Keep_pedalling

RomfordNavy said:

GDB2222 said:

Perhaps you should have a look at the AgeUK website 
https://www.ageuk.org.uk/information-advice/care/paying-for-care/paying-for-a-care-home/do-i-have-to-sell-my-home-to-pay-for-care/

Check the section beginning :-

Will my home have to be included in the means test?

Interesting but still a bit vague:

"your home will not be included if, for example, your partner still lives there or, in certain circumstances, a relative."

So what exactly the relationship of the two current owners?

GDB2222

RomfordNavy said:

GDB2222 said:

Perhaps you should have a look at the AgeUK website 
https://www.ageuk.org.uk/information-advice/care/paying-for-care/paying-for-a-care-home/do-i-have-to-sell-my-home-to-pay-for-care/

Check the section beginning :-

Will my home have to be included in the means test?

Interesting but still a bit vague:

"your home will not be included if, for example, your partner still lives there or, in certain circumstances, a relative."

You should read the whole section, not just the first sentence, but it is entirely up to you. 

macman

OP, unless you give us the context here, no one can help you. What is the supposed purpose of the removal? What is the relationship? Do both parties consent?
If it's to avoid a care home fee sale, then you are deluded. If the other party remains in the home, then they would simply put a charge on it, not force a sale. If it's to reduce supposed assets, then it's a clear case of voluntary deprivation of assets, and would fool no one.
You can't just 'remove' one party from the ownership anyway. They have to transfer their share to the other party.