Given the you say your wife inherited from her mother, why/how did you end up owning 1%? If it had remained in her sole ownership your tax objectives would have been achieved by default.
Given the you say your wife inherited from her mother, why/how did you end up owning 1%? If it had remained in her sole ownership your tax objectives would have been achieved by default.
requested that they back date it to Feb 2019 in-accordance with the Land Registry documents.
Given the you say your wife inherited from her mother, why/how did you end up owning 1%? If it had remained in her sole ownership your tax objectives would have been achieved by default.
requested that they back date it to Feb 2019 in-accordance with the Land Registry documents.
That doesnt answer my question. Why was the OP ever on any Land registry documents as owning 1% when he states that his wife inherited the property from her mother?
Someone advised you when the title became 1% and 99%. Who advised you, why was this done and why were the tax implications ignored? I am thinking that there might be a claim here from you against whoever provided the advice.
Thanks for this but don't believe that will work as the Solicitor's submitted the Land Registry as requested. Unfortunately I didn't ask for tax advice from them or anyone else.
Given the you say your wife inherited from her mother, why/how did you end up owning 1%? If it had remained in her sole ownership your tax objectives would have been achieved by default.
If I recall it was because she couldn't get a mortgage as she had no income.
Replies