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Deed of Assignment, change split of beneficial ownership between spouses: does HSBC need to be told?


Our mortgage is with HSBC (residential with consent to let) and in our joint names.
Do we need to inform HSBC about this? The solicitor doing the deed of assignment says we don't as the deed doesn't affect legal ownership of the property. I'm still wary as the solicitor is going by logic and precedent and haven't actually reviewed our mortgage conditions. I'm worried there may be something in our mortgage conditions that requires us to inform/ask HSBC before we do something like this.
Our mortgage is governed by 'HSBC Mortgage Loan Terms & Conditions 2018v2'. I've tried to pore over it myself but it's quite dense and not something I'd want to interpret myself.
We'll check with HSBC too but as it could be a while before they confirm, I'm looking for any experience or insight into this?
Has anyone done such a change in beneficial ownership (among the borrowers) on an HSBC mortgage and have any experience or insight to share?
Comments
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@JohnTravoltage I can't tell you what to do in your specific case, but I've done multiple DoTs+Form 17s over the last many years while the property was mortgaged with several different lenders (none of them HSBC), it's never been necessary to inform them of the same.
I am a Mortgage Adviser - You should note that this site doesn't check my status as a mortgage adviser, so you need to take my word for it. This signature is here as I follow MSE's Mortgage Adviser Code of Conduct. Any posts on here are for information and discussion purposes only and shouldn't be seen as financial advice.
PLEASE DO NOT SEND PMs asking for one-to-one-advice, or representation.
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Thanks @K_S. This is helpful input.
I'd imagine HSBC would be no different.
After poring through their Ts&Cs to look for anything that may address beneficial interests or assignment or ownership, I don't see anything that clearly obligates us to do this, but being cautious0 -
K_S said:@JohnTravoltage I can't tell you what to do in your specific case, but I've done multiple DoTs+Form 17s over the last many years while the property was mortgaged with several different lenders (none of them HSBC), it's never been necessary to inform them of the same.
As my wife and I are currently joint tenants, the solicitor drawing up our deed has indicated that in order for the deed to be valid, we will need to sever the joint tenancy so we become Tenants in Common, and for this to be done, a 'Form A' restriction will have to be registered on the property at the Land Registry.
1. When the Form A restriction is registered, isn't this likely to be flagged to the lender regardless of whether we separately inform them or not (I presume lenders monitor land registry activity on mortgaged properties)?
2. Is a mortgage lender likely to have a problem with the registration of a Form A restriction on a property they've lent on?
3. Is the existence of a Form A restriction on the property likely to hamper remortgaging the property in the future?
For reference, the Form A restriction is worded as follows (I believe this is standard language):
"No disposition by a sole proprietor of the registered estate (except a trust corporation) under which capital money arises is to be registered unless authorised by an order of the court"
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@Land_Registry - perhaps you might be able to comment on the above too, in addition to perspective from @K_S?0
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@JohnTravoltage It's a good few years ago but I remember the same process of severing the joint tenancy when we did it (it was a property that we previously used to live in). I am fairly confident that I didn't inform the then lender nor did I have any queries from them. I've subsequently remortgaged a few times, no questions came up during these remos.
Hopefully I'm not misremembering, your case may or may not be the same. I'm definitely not an expert in this area, just speaking from what I remember of my personal experience.I am a Mortgage Adviser - You should note that this site doesn't check my status as a mortgage adviser, so you need to take my word for it. This signature is here as I follow MSE's Mortgage Adviser Code of Conduct. Any posts on here are for information and discussion purposes only and shouldn't be seen as financial advice.
PLEASE DO NOT SEND PMs asking for one-to-one-advice, or representation.
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That's helpful @K_S. Thank you for your inputs. It looks straightforward, but want to avoid any issues with my current lender or subsequent remortgaging esp with interest rates rising rapidly.
Anyone else who has any experience or insight into this? Would appreciate any pointers0 -
As a mortgage remains joint and several regardless of changes to the ownership I don't see why any lender would be interested, TBH.I am a mortgage broker. You should note that this site doesn't check my status as a Mortgage Adviser, so you need to take my word for it. This signature is here as I follow MSE's Mortgage Adviser Code of Conduct. Any posts on here are for information and discussion purposes only and shouldn't be seen as financial advice. Please do not send PMs asking for one-to-one-advice, or representation.0
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JohnTravoltage said:K_S said:@JohnTravoltage I can't tell you what to do in your specific case, but I've done multiple DoTs+Form 17s over the last many years while the property was mortgaged with several different lenders (none of them HSBC), it's never been necessary to inform them of the same.
As my wife and I are currently joint tenants, the solicitor drawing up our deed has indicated that in order for the deed to be valid, we will need to sever the joint tenancy so we become Tenants in Common, and for this to be done, a 'Form A' restriction will have to be registered on the property at the Land Registry.
1. When the Form A restriction is registered, isn't this likely to be flagged to the lender regardless of whether we separately inform them or not (I presume lenders monitor land registry activity on mortgaged properties)?
2. Is a mortgage lender likely to have a problem with the registration of a Form A restriction on a property they've lent on?
3. Is the existence of a Form A restriction on the property likely to hamper remortgaging the property in the future?
For reference, the Form A restriction is worded as follows (I believe this is standard language):
"No disposition by a sole proprietor of the registered estate (except a trust corporation) under which capital money arises is to be registered unless authorised by an order of the court"
It’s not a ‘disposition’ so the lender wouldn’t need to consent if you applied. Whether they monitor the register is something only they can confirm
A form A restriction will hamper any disposition by one of you if the joint owner has died - that’s kind of what it’s there for in some ways. If you are both alive and remortgaging it won’t hamper you“Official Company Representative
I am the official company representative of Land Registry. MSE has given permission for me to post in response to queries about the company, so that I can help solve issues. You can see my name on the companies with permission to post list. I am not allowed to tout for business at all. If you believe I am please report it to forumteam@moneysavingexpert.com This does NOT imply any form of approval of my company or its products by MSE"2 -
kingstreet said:As a mortgage remains joint and several regardless of changes to the ownership I don't see why any lender would be interested, TBH.
Worst case, can we roll-back the change and become joint tenants again if there is a problem with remortgaging in the future?
I realise this will almost certainly mean we will revert to the current ownership of beneficial interest with all the associated tax implications, but thinking we could just become joint tenants again if required at the time of remortgaging.
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Land_Registry said:A form A restriction will hamper any disposition by one of you if the joint owner has died - that’s kind of what it’s there for in some ways. If you are both alive and remortgaging it won’t hamper you
So in case of death of one of us, we'll now need to explicitly write it into our wills so the other can inherit the deceased's share?
Also, I understand the mortgage liability is deemed to be owned in the new proportion of beneficial ownership, so I'd need to pay SDLT on the reduction in my mortgage liability even though there's no money changing hands? Can you confirm this?0
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