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How are tax codes assigned?
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proformance
Posts: 345 Forumite


in Cutting tax
Hi guys,
I have a general question about how HMRC apportions tax codes to income.
For example, if I have "earned" the following values from the following mechanisms, how would HMRC assign tax codes:
1 PAYE - £13,000
1 state pension - £12,562
1 private pension A - £1,650
1 private pension B - £0 (no drawdowns)
What would the expected tax band be for each one of these items and how/when are they assigned?
Thanks,
Z
I have a general question about how HMRC apportions tax codes to income.
For example, if I have "earned" the following values from the following mechanisms, how would HMRC assign tax codes:
1 PAYE - £13,000
1 state pension - £12,562
1 private pension A - £1,650
1 private pension B - £0 (no drawdowns)
What would the expected tax band be for each one of these items and how/when are they assigned?
Thanks,
Z
0
Comments
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PAYE code 1Pension A code BRPension B no code allocated unless you have previously taken something then it would be code BRAll assuming there are no other additions or deductions from your allowance and you do not live in Scotland.They assigned at the beginning of each tax year unless there is a change mid year when the codes may not be allocated as expected as they need to take account of the year as a whole. The SP is paid gross so that amount is deducted from your allowance thus taking the tax due from your main PAYE income.1
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molerat said:PAYE code 1Pension A code BRPension B no code allocated unless you have previously taken something then it would be code BR
So even though someone goes over their allowance on aggregate, they still pay BR on mechanisms (such as the two pension schemes above), despite their overall earnings/income falling beyond the tax free annual allowance?0 -
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Still a bit confused. If the entire tax free allowance is utilised by PAYE + state pension, how come other items (like private pensions) are still taxable at the BR?0 -
proformance said:molerat said:PAYE code 1Pension A code BRPension B no code allocated unless you have previously taken something then it would be code BR
So even though someone goes over their allowance on aggregate, they still pay BR on mechanisms (such as the two pension schemes above), despite their overall earnings/income falling beyond the tax free annual allowance?
If pension A was the first one you started you would have a K code their (to collect the tax due on the £1,650 and State Pension) and BR at PAYE (earnings?).
You wouldn't have a tax code at pension B until you had taken some taxable income.
The first payment from pension B would have the emergency tax code (1257L) operated against it on a non cumulative basis.
But the simplest sequence is how molerat has set out, albeit when (if) the earnings stop you will need new tax code at pension A1 -
proformance said:
Still a bit confused. If the entire tax free allowance is utilised by PAYE + state pension, how come other items (like private pensions) are still taxable at the BR?
You only get one Personal Allowance whether you have 1 job no job or 100 jobs. Same with pensions.1 -
proformance said:molerat said:PAYE code 1Pension A code BRPension B no code allocated unless you have previously taken something then it would be code BR
So even though someone goes over their allowance on aggregate, they still pay BR on mechanisms (such as the two pension schemes above), despite their overall earnings/income falling beyond the tax free annual allowance?
1
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