Splitting up and selling the house - Overpayments

3 Posts

Hi all,
I'm in the process of splitting with my partner (not married but is the father of my children) - and we are looking at selling the home (both of us are on the mortgage etc).
While getting the details from the mortgage company of how much we owe to work out how much I would be entitled to after we split, I discovered he had been making large overpayments on the mortgage over the last couple of years. (about £40,000).
It was a shock to find this out, that he had all this money to overpay and didnt tell me while I struggled to pay the household bills.
He is adamant (and nasty) that those overpayments are his alone and when the split of money is done after the house sale, he should get them back in full. I am conflicted, as to whether I should be entitled to the split of them too.
So I was just looking for any opinion or advice that anyone can offer? Is there a legal stance for this situation? Or is it purely a morale call if I choose to push for a share of the overpayments? And I suppose it would have to be settled in court if we can't agree? (which would be the case)
Thanks in advance.
I'm in the process of splitting with my partner (not married but is the father of my children) - and we are looking at selling the home (both of us are on the mortgage etc).
While getting the details from the mortgage company of how much we owe to work out how much I would be entitled to after we split, I discovered he had been making large overpayments on the mortgage over the last couple of years. (about £40,000).
It was a shock to find this out, that he had all this money to overpay and didnt tell me while I struggled to pay the household bills.
He is adamant (and nasty) that those overpayments are his alone and when the split of money is done after the house sale, he should get them back in full. I am conflicted, as to whether I should be entitled to the split of them too.
So I was just looking for any opinion or advice that anyone can offer? Is there a legal stance for this situation? Or is it purely a morale call if I choose to push for a share of the overpayments? And I suppose it would have to be settled in court if we can't agree? (which would be the case)
Thanks in advance.
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The basic position is that you are each entitled to 50% unless you have a declaration of trust stating you own in different shares.
If he wants to claim that he should have more, then he would have to show that their was a mutual intention or agreement that he would have a larger share or that his contributions would alter the shares.
I think legally you are entitled to 50% of proceeds, but morally it is a grey area. Hopefully selling the house isnt leaving your children without a home? if so i think you should be protected from selling it until they are at an age to leave home.