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Clause in Will

My mum died yesterday and I have a question about a clause in her Will (I have the copy that she had at home but haven't yet discussed it with the solicitors who drew it up) that I hope the forum can help to interpret.

a) as to the property "house name" (if I shall own it at the date of my death) it is my wish but without creating any binding trust or obligation that it shall be sold by my Trustees and the net proceeds of sale shall be divided as to two thirds (2/3) to my said daughter Name A and one third (1/3) to my said son Name B absolutely

The property referred to was actually sold in 2010 about 6 months after the date of the Will when she downsized to her current property, so does that mean that this clause no longer has any effect? And if so does the entire estate then fall under the next clause:

b) as to the remainder of my residuary estate as to:-

i) one third (1/3) for my said son Name B absolutely

ii) one third (1/3) for my said daughter Name A absolutely

iii) one third (1/3) equally for my grandchildren Name C and Name D or to the survivor of them both upon attaining the age of twenty one years absolutely

As I'm the son it makes no difference to me, I get 1/3 of the estate whatever, what is affected is the proportions going to my sister and my nieces - she and I would both prefer it all to be under b), and I think that will happen automatically, but I wonder whether you think that is the case? My sister and I are both executors so we will be taking proper legal advice but i wanted to get a head start with an unofficial interpretation.
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Comments

  • tacpot12
    tacpot12 Posts: 9,383 Forumite
    Ninth Anniversary 1,000 Posts Name Dropper
    As the house has been sold, the clause as to what is to happen to it is disregarded. 
    The comments I post are my personal opinion. While I try to check everything is correct before posting, I can and do make mistakes, so always try to check official information sources before relying on my posts.
  • JGB1955
    JGB1955 Posts: 3,901 Forumite
    Sixth Anniversary 1,000 Posts Name Dropper
    It looks to me like clause B now takes precedence. 
    #2 Saving for Christmas 2024 - £1 a day challenge. £325 of £366
  • Grumpy_chap
    Grumpy_chap Posts: 18,697 Forumite
    Part of the Furniture 10,000 Posts Name Dropper Combo Breaker
    My mum died yesterday and I have a question about a clause in her Will (I have the copy that she had at home but haven't yet discussed it with the solicitors who drew it up) that I hope the forum can help to interpret.

    a) as to the property "house name" (if I shall own it at the date of my death) it is my wish but without creating any binding trust or obligation that it shall be sold by my Trustees and the net proceeds of sale shall be divided as to two thirds (2/3) to my said daughter Name A and one third (1/3) to my said son Name B absolutely

    The property referred to was actually sold in 2010 about 6 months after the date of the Will when she downsized to her current property, so does that mean that this clause no longer has any effect? And if so does the entire estate then fall under the next clause:

    b) as to the remainder of my residuary estate as to:-

    i) one third (1/3) for my said son Name B absolutely

    ii) one third (1/3) for my said daughter Name A absolutely

    iii) one third (1/3) equally for my grandchildren Name C and Name D or to the survivor of them both upon attaining the age of twenty one years absolutely

    As I'm the son it makes no difference to me, I get 1/3 of the estate whatever, what is affected is the proportions going to my sister and my nieces - she and I would both prefer it all to be under b), and I think that will happen automatically, but I wonder whether you think that is the case? My sister and I are both executors so we will be taking proper legal advice but i wanted to get a head start with an unofficial interpretation.
    Even if it does not now fall to (B), as you are in agreement, then you could do a simple DoV to clarify / ensure that it goes to clause (B).  Failing that you can inherit 1/3rd and daughter can inherit 2/3rd then immediately gift half of her inheritance to the grandchildren.  Assuming daughter is in good health and expected to survive 7 years, there should be no real concerns about the immediate gifting of the inheritance impacting her (estate) liability to subsequent IHT.

    Who is the Executor of the will?  There may not be any need to involve the original Solicitor to interpret.
  • JGB1955
    JGB1955 Posts: 3,901 Forumite
    Sixth Anniversary 1,000 Posts Name Dropper
    If it's option 'A' the daughter can still apportion her share to her own children, via DOV   with no IHT issues.
    #2 Saving for Christmas 2024 - £1 a day challenge. £325 of £366
  • DairyQueen
    DairyQueen Posts: 1,858 Forumite
    Ninth Anniversary 1,000 Posts Name Dropper
    Clause a) fails as she did not own the named property at the time of her death. Any other property owned at her death falls into her residual estate and will be subject to clause b).

    I have a similar clause in my Will. The named property is subject to a specific clause. I anticipate that I will post-decease the sale and therefore this clause will fail.
  • SiliconChip
    SiliconChip Posts: 1,885 Forumite
    1,000 Posts Fourth Anniversary Name Dropper
    Thanks for the comments, which seem to bear out my own thoughts on clause a).

    As some of you have mentioned, a DOV will achieve the aims of clause b) if necessary but what I want to find out is if it is necessary, and the consensus seems to be that it isn't.

    @Grumpy_chap, the OP does say that my sister and myself are executors but it doesn't make clear that we are the only executors, so it's correct that we don't need to involve the original solicitors beyond picking up the original of the Will from them - I may well consult with the solicitors here in Birmingham who drew up my own Will.
  • SeniorSam
    SeniorSam Posts: 1,673 Forumite
    Part of the Furniture 1,000 Posts Combo Breaker
    Do bear in mind that in order to effect a Deed of Variation, ALL beneficiaries need to agree to it. If any o those are under age, you may have difficulties.  
    I'm a retired IFA who specialised for many years in Inheritance Tax, Wills and Trusts. I cannot offer advice now, but my comments here and on Legal Beagles as Sam101 are just meant to be helpful. Do ask questions from the Members who are here to help.
  • Mojisola
    Mojisola Posts: 35,571 Forumite
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    SeniorSam said:
    Do bear in mind that in order to effect a Deed of Variation, ALL beneficiaries need to agree to it. If any o those are under age, you may have difficulties.  
    All adversely affected beneficiaries.


  • Mojisola
    Mojisola Posts: 35,571 Forumite
    Part of the Furniture 10,000 Posts Name Dropper
    the OP does say that my sister and myself are executors but it doesn't make clear that we are the only executors, so it's correct that we don't need to involve the original solicitors beyond picking up the original of the Will from them - I may well consult with the solicitors here in Birmingham who drew up my own Will.
    If you two are the only executors named, then you are the only executors.


  • Savvy_Sue
    Savvy_Sue Posts: 47,465 Forumite
    Part of the Furniture 10,000 Posts Name Dropper

    Mojisola said:
    SeniorSam said:
    Do bear in mind that in order to effect a Deed of Variation, ALL beneficiaries need to agree to it. If any o those are under age, you may have difficulties.  
    All adversely affected beneficiaries.

    For complete clarity, if any of the adversely affected beneficiaries are under age, then they can't agree to it. 

    But for example if you have an estate split four ways, if two people want to re-direct their inheritance and two don't, those who do can obtain a Deed of Variation. The other two are not adversely affected - not affected at all in fact. 
    Signature removed for peace of mind
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