Utility bill

desamax

Hi everyone I’m looking for advice.  

I bought a leasehold unit to let out, I marketed it and let it after two months. I never used the unit while it was vacant. I’m now receiving demands for electricity standing charge of £1.50 a day for the time before I let it to my tenant. This is for 60 days, no electricity was used.  I never requested or was offered the supply I believed there was no supply connected when I completed my purchase, it would be up to the occupier to arrange utilities in their name. Anyone know if I am legally liable for this charge or can I challenge it. 

Thanks to anyone who can advise 

ItsComingRome

Yes, you are liable for any utilities for a property that you own (or have a lease for as a renter.)

The utilities would have been connected, it would be very unusual for them not to be. The previous owner would have had to have them disconnected (at significant cost) which they're unlikely to have done.

JGB1955

If the 'unit' has a power supply you're liable for the bill... what sort of unit are you talking about?  

Aylesbury_Duck

I'd have thought you are liable.  You owned the unit and were therefore responsible for the standing charge.  You say you believe there was no connected supply, but did you actually check, because it sounds as if there was?  If it wasn't connected, surely your new tenant wouls have raised the lack of a power supply with you.

ThumbRemote

Commercial energy contracts are not the same as residential contracts. You are bound by their standard supply agreement. 

ItsComingRome

ThumbRemote said:

Commercial energy contracts are not the same as residential contracts. You are bound by their standard supply agreement. 

But so are residential ones.

If there is a meter there, you're going to have to pay the standing charge.

It's not particularly relevant whether the premises were commercial or residential in this instance.

desamax

Thanks everyone, it’s a  small showroom,
my tenant set up the utilities account, I have since found the mains was turned off. If I’m liable for the void period I will pay up begrudgingly. And put it down to experience. However I do feel the standing charge of £1.50 a day to be excessive. 

Thank you all for clarifying.  

Ectophile

If you gave not used any gas or electricity at all, then you don't have to pay.  That's enshrined in the wording of the Gas Act and the Electricity Act, and by court precedence.  You only become a deemed customer the moment you "take a supply" of gas or electricity.

The moment you turn on a light, you automatically become a deemed customer of the current supplier.  Which means you have to pay the standing charges.

So if the supply was disconnected, you don't have to pay.  Push pack on them.

JJ_Egan

But does the above apply to a business .

desamax

Quick update, I called them today ready to pay in full, the lady said because I used no electricity they were willing to reduce my bill by a 3rd. I accepted this a full and final payment. Ecpophile might be right, I was taken aback by their offer, after the comments yesterday.  I now wonder what would have happened if I said I have used no electricity as I had never been onsite. 

We live and learn.