We’d like to remind Forumites to please avoid political debate on the Forum.
This is to keep it a safe and useful space for MoneySaving discussions. Threads that are – or become – political in nature may be removed in line with the Forum’s rules. Thank you for your understanding.
PLEASE READ BEFORE POSTING: Hello Forumites! In order to help keep the Forum a useful, safe and friendly place for our users, discussions around non-MoneySaving matters are not permitted per the Forum rules. While we understand that mentioning house prices may sometimes be relevant to a user's specific MoneySaving situation, we ask that you please avoid veering into broad, general debates about the market, the economy and politics, as these can unfortunately lead to abusive or hateful behaviour. Threads that are found to have derailed into wider discussions may be removed. Users who repeatedly disregard this may have their Forum account banned. Please also avoid posting personally identifiable information, including links to your own online property listing which may reveal your address. Thank you for your understanding.
📨 Have you signed up to the Forum's new Email Digest yet? Get a selection of trending threads sent straight to your inbox daily, weekly or monthly!
The Forum now has a brand new text editor, adding a bunch of handy features to use when creating posts. Read more in our how-to guide
Local Authority on title deeds?
metalloz
Posts: 19 Forumite
I found a property on rightmove that I was interested in viewing. The ad said it was a leasehold, so I was able to work out the house number from the map and also the previously sold prices.
I downloaded the title deeds and it said the owner is 'Proprietor: THE MAYOR AND BURGESSES OF THE LONDON BOROUGH OF [XXX] of The Town Hall' since 1960.
The property has been bought/sold a number of times over the past 20 years based on the property sale history on rightmove. I'm a bit confused on how this works. Is it normal for ex council flats to still have the local authority on the title deeds?
I downloaded the title deeds and it said the owner is 'Proprietor: THE MAYOR AND BURGESSES OF THE LONDON BOROUGH OF [XXX] of The Town Hall' since 1960.
The property has been bought/sold a number of times over the past 20 years based on the property sale history on rightmove. I'm a bit confused on how this works. Is it normal for ex council flats to still have the local authority on the title deeds?
0
Comments
-
Are they the freeholder?
0 -
The title deeds say 'This register describes the land and estate comprised in the title' so I think so.
I might double check with the agent, maybe they have input the address wrong. The ad said it had a long lease, but based on these title deeds its only got 84 years left.0 -
You're looking at the freehold. The council is the freeholder. Perfectly normal for ex-council houses, bought under RTB?
You want to look at the lease - which is what you'd be buying.
84yr lease remaining - long enough to be mortgageable for now, but you'll want to extend it in the nearish future. After 2yrs, you can go down the statutory route, which is unlikely to be very expensive. What's the property worth?0
Confirm your email address to Create Threads and Reply
Categories
- All Categories
- 354.4K Banking & Borrowing
- 254.4K Reduce Debt & Boost Income
- 455.4K Spending & Discounts
- 247.3K Work, Benefits & Business
- 604.1K Mortgages, Homes & Bills
- 178.5K Life & Family
- 261.6K Travel & Transport
- 1.5M Hobbies & Leisure
- 16K Discuss & Feedback
- 37.7K Read-Only Boards