Seller lied to me and sold me a car with outstanding Santander Consumer Finance left on it.

poppasmurf_bewdley

p3ncilsharpener said:

poppasmurf_bewdley said:

p3ncilsharpener said:

phillw said:

macman said:

I repeat: did the vendor tell you that the car was free of finance? If not, then he didn't lie to you.

You don't consider "I am selling my car" a lie if it has outstanding finance?

No more than someone saying "I am selling my house" when it has an outstanding mortgage on it.  Similarly, I wouldn't say to someone who said "Let's go back to my house" "Hey, it's not YOUR house, the bank owns 80% of it" if they had a mortgage.

Perhaps you would, but I don't think the average person would assume the use of "my" even implies let alone explicitly claims that it is 100% owned by the person.

You cannot sell a house which has a mortgage attached to it until the mortgage has been repaid.  It's nothing like selling a car which has finance attached. Saying otherwise is totally misleading.  

You can't sell a car with finance attached to it, except, oops, you can.  OP bought a car that's still financed.

But you're missing the point.  The use of the term "my" is not an explicit statement that you own something 100%.  It's absurd to treat it like that.

If someone said "Can you hand me my phone" would you turn around and say"It's not YOUR phone, you're still paying off the contract"?  Of course you wouldn't.

It's exactly the same with the car.  You can't make the claim that someone who says they're selling "their" car is making an explicit claim of 100% ownership of said car.  You couldn't even credibly claim that it's implied either.

Of course you can. If someone is selling a car (by putting an advert in AutoTrader) that implies it's theirs to sell. 

p3ncilsharpener

poppasmurf_bewdley said:

p3ncilsharpener said:

poppasmurf_bewdley said:

p3ncilsharpener said:

phillw said:

macman said:

I repeat: did the vendor tell you that the car was free of finance? If not, then he didn't lie to you.

You don't consider "I am selling my car" a lie if it has outstanding finance?

No more than someone saying "I am selling my house" when it has an outstanding mortgage on it.  Similarly, I wouldn't say to someone who said "Let's go back to my house" "Hey, it's not YOUR house, the bank owns 80% of it" if they had a mortgage.

Perhaps you would, but I don't think the average person would assume the use of "my" even implies let alone explicitly claims that it is 100% owned by the person.

You cannot sell a house which has a mortgage attached to it until the mortgage has been repaid.  It's nothing like selling a car which has finance attached. Saying otherwise is totally misleading.  

You can't sell a car with finance attached to it, except, oops, you can.  OP bought a car that's still financed.

But you're missing the point.  The use of the term "my" is not an explicit statement that you own something 100%.  It's absurd to treat it like that.

If someone said "Can you hand me my phone" would you turn around and say"It's not YOUR phone, you're still paying off the contract"?  Of course you wouldn't.

It's exactly the same with the car.  You can't make the claim that someone who says they're selling "their" car is making an explicit claim of 100% ownership of said car.  You couldn't even credibly claim that it's implied either.

Of course you can. If someone is selling a car (by putting an advert in AutoTrader) that implies it's theirs to sell. 

You do seem to like missing the point, don't you?

I said nothing about that adverts.  I said that someone saying "my" something is not an explicit or implicit statement of ownership.  Rented people say "my house" but they aren't claiming they own it.,  You don't own your husband or wife but you say "my husband" or "my wife."  Many people would say "my company" when referring to the company they work for but they're not the owners.

By the same logic though, nobody should be listing their (mortgaged) houses for sale on Rightmove. After all, it's still financed.

poppasmurf_bewdley

p3ncilsharpener said:

poppasmurf_bewdley said:

p3ncilsharpener said:

poppasmurf_bewdley said:

p3ncilsharpener said:

phillw said:

macman said:

I repeat: did the vendor tell you that the car was free of finance? If not, then he didn't lie to you.

You don't consider "I am selling my car" a lie if it has outstanding finance?

No more than someone saying "I am selling my house" when it has an outstanding mortgage on it.  Similarly, I wouldn't say to someone who said "Let's go back to my house" "Hey, it's not YOUR house, the bank owns 80% of it" if they had a mortgage.

Perhaps you would, but I don't think the average person would assume the use of "my" even implies let alone explicitly claims that it is 100% owned by the person.

You cannot sell a house which has a mortgage attached to it until the mortgage has been repaid.  It's nothing like selling a car which has finance attached. Saying otherwise is totally misleading.  

You can't sell a car with finance attached to it, except, oops, you can.  OP bought a car that's still financed.

But you're missing the point.  The use of the term "my" is not an explicit statement that you own something 100%.  It's absurd to treat it like that.

If someone said "Can you hand me my phone" would you turn around and say"It's not YOUR phone, you're still paying off the contract"?  Of course you wouldn't.

It's exactly the same with the car.  You can't make the claim that someone who says they're selling "their" car is making an explicit claim of 100% ownership of said car.  You couldn't even credibly claim that it's implied either.

Of course you can. If someone is selling a car (by putting an advert in AutoTrader) that implies it's theirs to sell. 

You do seem to like missing the point, don't you?

I said nothing about that adverts.  I said that someone saying "my" something is not an explicit or implicit statement of ownership.  Rented people say "my house" but they aren't claiming they own it.,  You don't own your husband or wife but you say "my husband" or "my wife."  Many people would say "my company" when referring to the company they work for but they're not the owners.

By the same logic though, nobody should be listing their (mortgaged) houses for sale on Rightmove. After all, it's still financed.

I think it's you that's deliberately missing the point.