Implications of transferring part of freehold (via TP1 form)

SoftBulletin

I am owner-occupier of a long leasehold flat above a restaurant. There is one other flat inside the building and an extension on the back of the building that currently contains a third flat. This extension was built a few years ago by the freeholder as a "stockroom" and therefore has neither planning permission nor building control in place -  the local council are aware and put an enforcement notice out for it to be closed down about 4 years ago but he quickly put people back in there again so I have contacted the council again to let them know and hopefully will get it shut down permanently (waiting to hear back at the moment). The main building is, as you could probably guess, in very very poor condition with the freeholder point blank refusing to do any refurbishment for many years now. I am about 6 weeks away from a property tribunal where i am very confident of having a new manager appointed (he isnt contesting it), but what he has contested is the split of costs - because the flat at the back didnt exist when my lease was created the split of costs doesnt account for it and so part of my application to the tribunal is for a variation to the lease to reduce the two official flats share to a quarter each (with the restaurant paying the other quarter).

In order to avoid this he put in a TP1 application a few weeks ago to transfer the title of the makeshift flat out of the freehold in to a new one (with the ownership transferring to a relative). I now found out just this morning that he has put the freehold of the main building up for auction in just over a weeks time. Obviously he is in breach of his duty to give us right of first refusal on the freehold (the residential parts of the building are over 50% so it falls within scope) but im not sure if theres anything i can do to stop his TP1 application going through (i told the land registry that the flat didnt have planning permission but they werent interested) and so im concerned about what the implications of it transferring ownership are.. does it mean that we lose the right of first refusal over that part of the building and he can then sell it on to whoever he wants? Will he also be able to get away with not paying a share of the maintenance since its no longer part of the freehold? Our lease actually gives us the right to use the area the flat was built on as a patio but having contacted the Land Registry they said thats not grounds for an objection.

Sorry for the ramble but if anyone has any thoughts it would be hugely appreciated, I find the implications of the TP1 part transfer of title very confusing. Thank you!