change of use

uralmaid

A property we are interested in has two lots of rates (council tax), One is for the main house and the second is for outbuildings currently used for business purposes. If we purchased it then the outbuildings would be solely for our own use for my husband to keep his motorbikes in. Would we be able to get the business use lifted and just pay council tax?

theartfullodger

I give up.  When you asked the council, what did they tell you?  Different councils, different arrangements of buildings, different covenants, who knows other than THAT council.

lincroft1710

Talk to the Valuation Office Agency (part of HMRC) as that is the body that will decide whether or not the former business premises can be treated as no longer non domestic property and incorporated into the CT band

uralmaid

Thanks lincroft.  Artfull lodger don't need your ascerbic remarks thanks. I was just asking a question to see if anyone else had been in the situation

diggingdude

uralmaid said:

Thanks lincroft.  Artfull lodger don't need your ascerbic remarks thanks. I was just asking a question to see if anyone else had been in the situation

There was nothing wrong with your question 

GDB2222

uralmaid said:

Thanks lincroft.  Artfull lodger don't need your ascerbic remarks thanks. I was just asking a question to see if anyone else had been in the situation

You take your life in your hands, asking questions here, I’m afraid.

I’m not convinced that you will get a helpful answer from HMRC to a hypothetical  question like that. 

dogshome

It could depend on just how the outbuilding is fitted out.

If it has a kitchen and is split into more than one room, it could attract residential CT even after the business was closed

A friend had this problem, but resolved it by declaring he lived in the main house and his wife in the annex, thus they both claimed sole occupancy and the billing was less the the CT on the house alone

uralmaid

Thanks all.  The property is a detached house then to the rear has lots of workshops and outbuildings. There is no annex. It has been used to run a business in the past. 

davidmcn

uralmaid said:

Thanks all.  The property is a detached house then to the rear has lots of workshops and outbuildings. There is no annex. It has been used to run a business in the past. 

Have they always been in business use, or are these workshops and outbuildings which were probably ancillary to the house in the first place? Might help if we could see what you're talking about, or if you could be more specific about "lots"!

uralmaid

Sorry I don't know how to put on a link.  Anyway thank you everyone. We have decided not to pursue this one. 

lincroft1710

GDB2222 said:

uralmaid said:

Thanks lincroft.  Artfull lodger don't need your ascerbic remarks thanks. I was just asking a question to see if anyone else had been in the situation

I’m not convinced that you will get a helpful answer from HMRC to a hypothetical  question like that. 

Although an Executive Agency of HMRC, the VOA is a completely separate entity regarding working practices, organisation etc and were rarely even in the same building as the Income Tax side of HMRC. They are the people who will ultimately decide whether the outbuildings can be removed from the Rating List