Buyer's solicitor says buyer's mortgage provider may not release funds to an unrepresented seller

septictank

I wonder if anyone can help. I am selling my house myself with no mortgage and self conveyancing (which I have done many times) we are hoping to complete next week. However at the last minute the buyer's solicitor has decided that she cannot complete without the buyer's mortgage providers  permission and has faxed the buyer's mortgage provider asking if they will release the funds to an unrepresented seller.
I have never heard of this before as the funds are released to the buyer's solicitor, not me directly and as far as I am aware she should satisfy my identity before releasing the money to me.
She has all the necessary proofs of my identity. Passport, utility bills, ID3 etc. 
She says it's to prevent fraud.  However I have searched and have never come across this before.  
Can anyone help if this is the case and now usual as I am at a loss and expect that her fax will go unanswered.
Many thanks.

princeofpounds

The issue normally appears to relate to the undertaking you provide as a seller to use the funds you receive to repay any charge on your property, including a mortgage. When a seller with a mortgage uses a solicitor, that's why the funds go to the solicitor first, to settle any mortgage before returning the proceeds. Solicitors believe they can rely on each other's undertakings due to the industry system they operate in, but they don't think they can rely on you*.

See question 3 here:
https://www.devonconveyancingsolicitors.co.uk/property-conveyancing-faqs/
and #2 here:
https://phewconveyancing.co.uk/articles/guidelines-for-conveyancing-solicitors-dealing-with-non-solicitors

As you don't have any charge (apparently anyway) then I would think the problem doesn't really exist. Can't think of what other undertakings you may need to provide, but perhaps there are some.

* Yes, you can argue about how sensible this is, and there is an element of guild protectionism here. But it is what it is.