Two defaults for same debt?

creditcardnewbie

Hello everyone,
Hopefully this isn't a stupid question.
Over 2 years ago I defaulted on my Barclaycard. After a short period of a payment plan (via StepChange) with Barclaycard they passed my debt to a company called PRA Group.
When I looked at my MSE Credit Club Credit Report today however I can see the debt recorded as 2 defaults - 1 for Barclaycard and 1 for PRA Group. Since I defaulted on my Barclaycard I never once missed a payment to either Barclaycard or PRA Group. I am thinking that surely a defaulted debt should not be recorded as 2 defaults? I am not sure how big a difference having one of these removed as a default but I am very keen to rebuild my credit history as best I can.
Many thanks in advance for any advice you can offer,
creditcardnewbie

[Deleted User]

The Barclaycard one should be removed, if PRA now own the debt.

creditcardnewbie

Deleted_User said:

The Barclaycard one should be removed, if PRA now own the debt.

Thank you zx81 for your prompt response, I really appreciate it. That is what I was thinking. I'll contact Barclaycard now to resolve.

sourcrates

Its actually correct, and is not two defaults, just the one.

Look again, the Barclaycard entry should show the date of default, and a zero or settled balance.

The PRA entry should show the same default date, and the outstanding balance.

This is how sold on accounts are typically reported, if any of the details on your file differ from the above, then you have cause for complaint.

Both entries will drop off your file on the 6 year anniversary of the default date.

Hope this helps.