Redundancy question(workplace change of ownership)

wavefunction

What if a person worked in hotel for 15 years and during that period the hotel was bought and sold by several companies several times, with most recent change of ownership ~2 years ago.

Is that person not entitled for redundancy pay even though they worked in the same building for 15 years straight?

Thanks

lincroft1710

It will depend if they were TUPEd every time the hotel changed hands

Jeremy535897

The building does not matter. What matters is whether the employee has continuity of employment as a result of TUPE rules applying on the previous changes of ownership. See: https://www.gov.uk/transfers-takeovers

wavefunction

Jeremy535897 said:

The building does not matter. What matters is whether the employee has continuity of employment as a result of TUPE rules applying on the previous changes of ownership. See: https://www.gov.uk/transfers-takeovers

Hmm... continuity of employment would mean that holiday entitlement would be transferred, right?

Jeremy535897

Yes it would.

ToxicWomble

Do you actually have a question/issue you want answering or are you just going to drip feed ?

wavefunction

ToxicWomble said:

Do you actually have a question/issue you want answering or are you just going to drip feed ?

Well, the person in question is my mother, and she’s not sure whether she’s entitled to redundancy pay under those circumstances. The hotel management didn’t say much more other than she’s at risk of redundancy and there will be an interview at the end of this month.

As I understand, since her holiday entitlement was carried over each time the hotel changed hands, she should be entitled for the full 15 years worth of redundancy pay.

This is very useful, thank you very much

Jeremy535897

Here is the starting point to calculate what she might be entitled to:
https://www.gov.uk/redundancy-your-rights