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Underpinning

Hi there. We bought our house in 2010, knowing that a part of the property had been underpinned in 1992. 10 years on & 28 years after the underpinning (with no issues) do I have to still "declare" this? We're paying approx. £300/£400 more per year because of this.
Please advise
Justin

Comments

  • TELLIT01
    TELLIT01 Posts: 18,568 Forumite
    Part of the Furniture 10,000 Posts Name Dropper PPI Party Pooper
    Check with your insurer.  Some may have a time limit post underpinning, others may require continuous reporting.
  • dunstonh
    dunstonh Posts: 121,189 Forumite
    Part of the Furniture 10,000 Posts Name Dropper Combo Breaker
    It all comes down to how the question is asked. e.g.
    "Has the property ever....." - means you have to declare it
    "in the last 10 years, has the property......" means you do not.

    Subsidence is more understood nowadays than it was in the 90s.   Often back then every bit of movement was referred to as subsidence and underpinning was the go to answer.   Nowadays, it is realised that it isnt necessarily the case and most do not need extreme measures like that. So, the quality insurers often take a more balanced view using individual circumstances.  The comparison sites will often just bulk you in the high risk pot and charge you more or even not offer cover.
    I am an Independent Financial Adviser (IFA). The comments I make are just my opinion and are for discussion purposes only. They are not financial advice and you should not treat them as such. If you feel an area discussed may be relevant to you, then please seek advice from an Independent Financial Adviser local to you.
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