Entitled to a share of marital home? 30 December 2019 at 8:52PM edited 30 November -1 at 12:00AM in Marriage, Relationships & Families 69 replies 5.7K views

Type_45

Jonathan_Kelvin wrote: »

You seem to be helping out quite a few people with rare yet identical situations.

Either you are a professional, in which case what on Earth are you asking on here for, or you are asking about the same person, in which case why the subterfuge?

Edited to add, you’ve been asking this question for a while, do you actually have a partner that you are considering marriage with? It reads as though you want to know before even looking. Given your age, and given that you seem to want children, it seems as though you need to get on with it.

You don’t seem very well off, it is as likely as not that any partner will be with more than you anyway.

I don't seem well off? Care to explain that? How well off do I seem to be?

Type_45

kingfisherblue wrote: »

Buying a house together. The woman will purchase the house without the man's financial input. It's unknown whether there will be a mortgage, and if there is, whose name it will be in.


Ok, so if they are buying a house together, that means between them. If the man is on the mortgage (if there is one), then obviously the woman is not buying the house without any financial input from the woman.


There are plenty of things that just don't add up here, and that's just in this post. When you add in the other posts, it really does not make sense.


School holidays anyone?

It's quite simple, but you have managed to make a hash of it. Were you hitting the cooking sherry quite hard over Christmas?

The man would be paying half the bills upon moving in to the house. But the woman would be buying the house.

Is that hard to understand? :beer:

Comms69

Google beneficial interest to understand why that chap got a share (almost certainly not half) the house.

Gavin83

Type_45 wrote: »

Not true. An ex-colleague of mine owned a house. Her partner moved in. They never married. But when they split up he got half the house. He apparently had done up the house in some way and so convinced the court that he was under the impression that he shared the house with her.

So your idea that not marrying is a silver bullet to keeping your possessions would seem to be misguided.

This never happened.

-taff

Type_45 wrote: »

I don't seem well off? Care to explain that? How well off do I seem to be?

Not well off enough to consult a professional....

Pollycat

I'm somewhat bemused why you're asking for advice as you appear to be disagreeing with what advice you've been given.
So...

Pollycat wrote: »

Maybe the OP should come back and ask again when the 'unknowns' are known.
Also factoring in the response re pre-nups.

Are you able to fill in the blanks...?

Type_45

Gavin83 wrote: »

This never happened.

Actually it happened twice. The same guy was later revealed to have done the same thing to his previous partner.

Type_45

Pollycat wrote: »

I'm somewhat bemused why you're asking for advice as you appear to be disagreeing with what advice you've been given.
So...


Are you able to fill in the blanks...?

The blanks are still blank at this point. Things are moving though.

Type_45

Comms69 wrote: »

Google beneficial interest to understand why that chap got a share (almost certainly not half) the house.

Half the house is the story as I remember it. A story told to me almost 5 years ago.

But my overall point remains. The person above who thinks that not marrying solves the problem of losing a share of your own property is mistaken.

Type_45

-taff wrote: »

Not well off enough to consult a professional....

Professionals frequent this forum. Or at least they used to. An inexplicable dumbing down has stricken this forum of late.