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Was loan mis-sold

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I approached my bank for a £3,000 loan last year to tide us over a few months whilst my husband was out of work. The bank advised a higher loan of £7,500 to pay off my (agreed) overdraft of £5,500 which made sense at the time as the charges were less than my overdraft fees.
My husband and I have now separated and I have discovered the loan is in my name only and my ex-husband is refusing to contribute towards the repayments.
As the loan was taken out to repay a joint overdraft I thought it was a joint loan - can I make a claim against my bank?
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Comments

  • bigisi
    bigisi Posts: 925 Forumite
    No, all the information about the loan would have been available at the time you took it out, it's not their fault you didn't read and understand it.

    Just because you don't understand something doesn't make it mis-sold. The phrase you want is 'mis-bought'.
  • BoGoF
    BoGoF Posts: 7,098 Forumite
    Part of the Furniture 1,000 Posts Name Dropper
    Reality check - why would they have made it joint when your husband was out of work?

    Check your loan paperwork....I bet there is only one name on it. As above, your failure to read an important document does not make it missold.
  • What do you mean you have "discovered" the loan was only in your name? You were the ony that approached the bank and presumably completed and signed the paperwork!?
  • spadoosh
    spadoosh Posts: 8,732 Forumite
    Ninth Anniversary 1,000 Posts Name Dropper Photogenic
    Youre going down the wrong route with this one. You need to settle this through any divorce agreements.
  • SonOf
    SonOf Posts: 2,631 Forumite
    1,000 Posts Fourth Anniversary
    I approached my bank for a £3,000 loan last year to tide us over a few months whilst my husband was out of work. The bank advised a higher loan of £7,500 to pay off my (agreed) overdraft of £5,500 which made sense at the time as the charges were less than my overdraft fees.

    That seems reasonable. They offer an alternative option that may save you money and allow you the choice to decide what to do.
    My husband and I have now separated and I have discovered the loan is in my name only and my ex-husband is refusing to contribute towards the repayments.
    As the loan was taken out to repay a joint overdraft I thought it was a joint loan - can I make a claim against my bank?

    Nothing you suggest indicates any wrongdoing by the bank.

    Most banks do not issue joint unsecured loans. Only single ownership. The credit agreement would have had the name of the borrower(s) on it and would require the signature of the borrower(s) to confirm they have understood the terms and agree to them.

    There is no missale here.
    This is something you may be able to address via your solicitor though in respect of your husband taking on his share of the liabilities as part of the settlement.
  • boo_star
    boo_star Posts: 3,202 Forumite
    Part of the Furniture 1,000 Posts
    Your loan paid off, by your own admission, YOUR overdraft and gave you extra borrowing.

    What you did with the extra capital was up to you. And you gave it to someone who ran off after being bailed out. That's life I'm afraid. Sometimes bad things happen to nice people.
  • You knew the loan was in your name from the start. You asked for it, you signed the papers, and only your name was mentioned in the documentation.
  • bigisi
    bigisi Posts: 925 Forumite
    Something tells me the OP's not coming back.
  • bigisi wrote: »
    Something tells me the OP's not coming back.

    That's probably our fault for mis-answering her question.
  • I don't understand what is 'missold' about this.
    Mortgage 1: May 2012 £90,000 April 2020: £47,000
    Mortgage 2: £270,000😱 Jan 2019 £253,000 April 2020
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