Loan statute barred?

sleepyjones

sourcrates wrote: »

Defaulted debts only show for 6 years, so it may have already dropped off both files.

But if your making payments to it, the payments would / should / might still show on the file, even though the default has dropped off?

[Deleted User]

sleepyjones wrote: »

But if your making payments to it, the payments would / should / might still show on the file, even though the default has dropped off?

Not the account still drops off.

But the payments still need to be made.

Willing2Learn

sleepyjones wrote: »

But if your making payments to it, the payments would / should / might still show on the file, even though the default has dropped off?

!!! wrote: »

Not the account still drops off.

...unless the account is on a payment arrangement (AP marker), in which case the account will continue to show for an eternity...

PJCBEL

I agree Gary they are disgraceful. 😲

sourcrates

sleepyjones wrote: »

But if your making payments to it, the payments would / should / might still show on the file, even though the default has dropped off?

Default/payment markers, whatever it might be regarding the entry, all vanish for ever after the 6 year countdown ends, as long as the account defaulted in the first place, if it didnt, then entries will still show.


The fact its not on her file suggests the account did default and the entry has already dropped off, possibly many years ago now.

[Deleted User]

PJCBEL wrote: »

I agree Gary they are disgraceful. 😲

Who are you referring to?

PixelPound

If it's not on her credit file then it's not affecting her credit file (if there was an AP marker wouldn't both credit files be marked as such)
OP needs to make arrangements to pay again since the wife is still liable and DMC are within rights to ask for payment. The DMP has prevented it being statute barred. Yes the wife may have not known anything about it and not had any contact but that does not mean she is not liable.
If the OP is not in a position to pay the DMC could request financial statements from both and request payments from the wife if she is financially better off. The other option for the wife is to pursue fraud as she did not know about the loan.
Were signatures required for the loan 10 years ago, was the bank aware only one person had agreed the loan, could this be seen as mis selling or not enough due diligence from the bank to ensure agreements were from both account holders?