Creditor left interim charging and unilateral notice on my title deeds.

Albala

Why are you so fixated on getting a receipt? Are you seriously going through all this, and racking up more charges, just about that? If you pay by bank transfer or whatever you will have a record for HMRC should you need it, and in any case, I am sure the water supplier will send some documentation to close the case. Also, I can't see how your water bill is tax deductable in the first place, unless it is business premises we're talking about, in which case your being disabled would be irrelevant. [*Edit* sorry, I missed you said this was office-use-of-home. But see my post below, you won't get much allowance for that anyway, just an expenses allowance against tax on the percentage of the house used for work from the original bill, which you say was what? a third of £800. So you stand to gain very little, even if you are a top-rate taxpayer. And even if HMRC accept that your business uses water.... And doesn't that have to be accounted for in the year it was due anyway, which you say was years ago? ]




I also can't see why you are getting at AdrianC, who has only been asking questions to get at the facts so it is possible to understand your problem. Nor do I like reading your accusations to other people re their opinions, which are not as you have represented them. I can see, however, given your rambling and illogical posts, and your accusations towards other people, why a water company might have just written you off as a nuisance that's wasting their staff's time.

Albala

Slithery wrote: »

If accompanied by a copy of the appropriate demand and subsequent statements proving that the account had been credited then HMRC would find it perfectly acceptable.

Exactly. Also, I've been s/e for over thirty years, and have never been audited (though I could provide proof of every penny I ever spent). I wonder why the OP expects to be? Oh, just let me guess.... and if it is 'office use of home' it would only be a small proportion of the bill that would be deductable- just the proportion of the bill that = the proportion of the house used for business purposes. I also suspect that HMRC would only allow that proportion of the original bill, not including any increases or penalties for late payment.

Add to that that if you claim office use of home, I thought you had to pay tax on the increase in value of the proportion of the property during your 'office use' of it when you sell it? You certainly used to have to. I can see HMRC trying to get that when the OP sells the property being a barrel of laughs.

G_M

indielad1010 wrote: »

Well to be fair, I thought it was a platform for advice on monetary matters, not opinions on disability rights, equality, political ideology and the rights and wrongs of debt enforcement!

You thought wrong. It's a property forum.


You need a debt management forum. Or a forum on court processes. Or a disability rights forum. Or a stress management forum.