Old Mortgage

paperdoll123

Hi there,

I have posted about this many years ago but unfortunately cannot find the post or access my log in.

To try to keep this succinct..

I have received a letter regarding an old mortgage account (19 years ago) in relation to a debt of 8k that has been disputed and settled many times in those early days. It was an error in administration as equity was returned but this strange amount seemed to stay.

I didn't hear a thing from them until a debt collecting agency made contact in around 2012-2014 whereby I asked for advice here and was given info about it being more than 6 years etc.. I sent that letter, along with proof of the mortgage being completed in full from the solicitors (I had kept it) and again assumed all was settled, until now, another 6-8 years later.

I have received another letter from NRAM to my old maiden name, regarding the wrong property address ( a short term rental from a completely different year) yet have managed to send it to my new property.

This is 19 years old and so last year, during having a huge clear out I finally threw away all correspondence and I am utterly shocked this has reared its ugly head once again.

Any advice would be much appreciated as I have absolutely nothing to prove anymore but do I need to respond?

Thank you in advance

[Deleted User]

Yes, you should. Mortgage debts don't become statute barred for 12 years, so you need to nip this one in the bud.

Was there a clear 12 years between the initial issue and the letter in 2012-14?

paperdoll123

I have actually managed to find the paperwork- phew!! Okay so its 16 years.

So I have the following letters..

June 2003 letter from solicitor stating mortgage paid in full.
June 2003 Letter from mortgage company confirming paid in full

July 2006 Debt Agency letter to collect the amount and I made contact with mortgage company direct
August 2006 A further letter from mortgage company - confirming all paid in full.

Oct 2013 A different debt agency letter offering reduced settlement 2.5k - I replied with response support from here, along with copies from mortgage company

May 2019 Todays letter with wrong address (clutching at straws!!)

None of this has ever been on my credit file.

jonesMUFCforever

Where are the deeds?
Have you checked the Land Registry to see if there are any charges on your property?

paperdoll123

No idea? It was my first house when I was 18 with an ex. I can check Land Registry but of course I haven't owned that property for over 16 years now.

Penelopa.Pitstop

You should do exactly the same what you did in 2013, sent them copies of letters from mortgage company. It seems that some debt agency buy this non-existent debt every few years.

paperdoll123

Yes I will do but its about how to stop this from keep popping up every so many years. I am just relieved I hadn't thrown away the paperwork as I Initially thought.

I have checked Land Registry and there is no info other than who owns it now and what they paid for it.

nick74

All you can do really is keep the paperwork safe in case it is needed again. Old debts tend to get sold on so there is nothing which will absolutely guarantee it won't ever pop up again in future.

However, considering that they are chasing a non-existent debt, in a former name, from so long ago that it would be statute barred by now anyway, I think personally I wouldn't dignify any future letters with a response.

jonesMUFCforever

nick74 wrote: »

All you can do really is keep the paperwork safe in case it is needed again. Old debts tend to get sold on so there is nothing which will absolutely guarantee it won't ever pop up again in future.

However, considering that they are chasing a non-existent debt, in a former name, from so long ago that it would be statute barred by now anyway, I think personally I wouldn't dignify any future letters with a response.

It might not be statute barred if a charge existed on the property but the OP has checked this out as I suggested.
I would send the 'prove it ' letter.

nick74

jonesMUFCforever wrote: »

It might not be statute barred if a charge existed on the property but the OP has checked this out as I suggested.

Surely not possible if the OP sold the house 16 years ago though? (I appreciate that detail only came to light after you posted the suggestion).