We're aware that some users are experiencing technical issues which the team are working to resolve. See the Community Noticeboard for more info. Thank you for your patience.
📨 Have you signed up to the Forum's new Email Digest yet? Get a selection of trending threads sent straight to your inbox daily, weekly or monthly!

PPI for spouse of bankruptee

Options
Hi, a relative has asked me to look into PPI for his wife.
He was declared bankrupt 16 years ago, she was not affected.
He thinks he has/had no PPI and any claim would not be his anyway as it would go to the Official Receiver.
If (big IF!) she is successful in her PPI claim:
1. Would she be entitled to it, or would it go to the OR?
2. Could it in any way negatively affect them (i.e. could the OR enforce payment or take any retrospective or current action against him/her/both?)
They are both very nervous about putting themselves in a negative situation as they have managed to get themselves into a good place in the last few years!
Thanks in advance

Comments

  • [Deleted User]
    [Deleted User] Posts: 26,612 Forumite
    Eighth Anniversary 10,000 Posts Name Dropper Photogenic
    If any PPI was solely in her name then a mis-selling complaint should be possible. If the PPI was in the Bankrupt's name (or in joint names) then any redress awarded is a pre-bankruptcy asset and will go to the Official Receiver.
  • AnotherJoe
    AnotherJoe Posts: 19,622 Forumite
    10,000 Posts Fifth Anniversary Name Dropper Photogenic
    The way to think of it is, since she wasn't affected previously, why would she be now?

    Same situation, his assets (or lack of), and her assets. Different things.
  • Nasqueron
    Nasqueron Posts: 10,658 Forumite
    Part of the Furniture 10,000 Posts Photogenic Name Dropper
    Also he can complain about PPI for anything after the bankruptcy - though 2003 bankruptcy, given limited credit for the next 6 years, 2009 onwards probably not going to have had finance with PPI

    Sam Vimes' Boots Theory of Socioeconomic Unfairness: 

    People are rich because they spend less money. A poor man buys $10 boots that last a season or two before he's walking in wet shoes and has to buy another pair. A rich man buys $50 boots that are made better and give him 10 years of dry feet. The poor man has spent $100 over those 10 years and still has wet feet.

This discussion has been closed.
Meet your Ambassadors

🚀 Getting Started

Hi new member!

Our Getting Started Guide will help you get the most out of the Forum

Categories

  • All Categories
  • 350.9K Banking & Borrowing
  • 253.1K Reduce Debt & Boost Income
  • 453.5K Spending & Discounts
  • 243.9K Work, Benefits & Business
  • 598.8K Mortgages, Homes & Bills
  • 176.9K Life & Family
  • 257.2K Travel & Transport
  • 1.5M Hobbies & Leisure
  • 16.1K Discuss & Feedback
  • 37.6K Read-Only Boards

Is this how you want to be seen?

We see you are using a default avatar. It takes only a few seconds to pick a picture.