We’d like to remind Forumites to please avoid political debate on the Forum.
This is to keep it a safe and useful space for MoneySaving discussions. Threads that are – or become – political in nature may be removed in line with the Forum’s rules. Thank you for your understanding.
PLEASE READ BEFORE POSTING: Hello Forumites! In order to help keep the Forum a useful, safe and friendly place for our users, discussions around non-MoneySaving matters are not permitted per the Forum rules. While we understand that mentioning house prices may sometimes be relevant to a user's specific MoneySaving situation, we ask that you please avoid veering into broad, general debates about the market, the economy and politics, as these can unfortunately lead to abusive or hateful behaviour. Threads that are found to have derailed into wider discussions may be removed. Users who repeatedly disregard this may have their Forum account banned. Please also avoid posting personally identifiable information, including links to your own online property listing which may reveal your address. Thank you for your understanding.
📨 Have you signed up to the Forum's new Email Digest yet? Get a selection of trending threads sent straight to your inbox daily, weekly or monthly!
Advice on Dispute

Kezzazzz
Posts: 4 Newbie
I am a long time lurker to these forums and am hoping someone can offer some advice.
My partner (stupidly) put a friend on his mortgage and the deeds back in 2012. She has never paid a penny or lived in the property.
They have now fallen out and she is wanting to force the sale of the house and be paid off some money from the proceeds.
They were never married and have no children.
How likely is it that he will have to pay up to sell?
Thanks
My partner (stupidly) put a friend on his mortgage and the deeds back in 2012. She has never paid a penny or lived in the property.
They have now fallen out and she is wanting to force the sale of the house and be paid off some money from the proceeds.
They were never married and have no children.
How likely is it that he will have to pay up to sell?
Thanks
0
Comments
-
what % ownership for each - is it 50:50 each?
maybe he put her on the mortgage and deeds as he would be unable to purchase alone? how much equity is in the property? could he afford to mortgage in his name only?0 -
Thanks for the quick response. It is 50/50. That was initially why he put her on the mortgage as she agreed she wanted no monetary reimbursement. It was purely so he could keep the house.
There is about 50% equity at the moment - amounting to approx £150,000.
He can pay it as it is at the moment but the money she is asking for he wont be able to get a new mortgage.0 -
Ouch! This could be a hugely expensive mistake to have made.
If they bought 50/50 with no legal agreement in place to suggest otherwise then she is entitled to 50/50.
Sounds like she wants no further involvement but forcing a sale is expensive.... can she afford to do that?0 -
Oh! Thought this may be an expensive lesson :-(
We are unsure if she can afford to force the sale. What sort of money are we talking about?0 -
the current mortgage will likely impact her from getting her own mortgage
Owning part of another property will mean extra stamp duty
It may cost £10k ish to force sale and she will likely have capital gains tax to pay too
Has he made a counter offer?0 -
He hasnt made an offer as yet.
He's weighing up all the options at the moment.
Thanks all for the great advice. Its been really helpful.0 -
This discussion has been closed.
Confirm your email address to Create Threads and Reply

Categories
- All Categories
- 351.8K Banking & Borrowing
- 253.4K Reduce Debt & Boost Income
- 454K Spending & Discounts
- 244.8K Work, Benefits & Business
- 600.2K Mortgages, Homes & Bills
- 177.3K Life & Family
- 258.4K Travel & Transport
- 1.5M Hobbies & Leisure
- 16.2K Discuss & Feedback
- 37.6K Read-Only Boards