Renting a lease hold property

Anthony32

Hi

I am in the process of looking to rent out my property. It is a lease hold property with 999 years and no one has ever collected or requested ground rent.
The mortgage company require consent to rent from the freeholder but the freeholder on the deeds cannot be located. I have spoken to the land registry, they advise no one has come forward as the freeholder and they don’t know what to do. Not not help there!!!
Anyone been in this situation and got a solution?

Thanks for your help

Anthony

davidmcn

Does the lease say you need freeholder's consent? If not then politely point that out to your lender.

Anthony32

Hi

It doesn’t really say in plain English.
The last freeholder was in 1944.
It shows me as the goods lease holder.
No mention of restrictions etc.

Thanks

G_M

Have you read the lease? From start to end?


What does it say if anything about parting with possession renting, sub-letting. ???

eddddy

Some people have said that their mortgage lenders have insisted on either:

1) a letter from the freeholder confirming that the consent to sub-let has been given

Or...

2) a letter from the freeholder confirming that no consent to sub-let is required

... and the lender says that sending them a copy of the lease to read themselves is not an option.


In your position, I might ask if the lender would accept a solicitor's letter, confirming that the solicitor has checked the lease and no consent is required. (But obviously, that would involve solicitors fees.)