Title deeds

AnotherJoe

If you buy something with someone, then unsurprising they also own it.
That is what the land registry entry indicates.
It's unusual but not at all unknown for only one person to be on the mortgage. But mortage doesn't indicate ownership, which I presume is where your confusion comes in.. mortage is just a loan of money.
You have posted two or three times now "when we bought the freehold together". Read that again. You bought the freehold together. Why then are you surprised he is registered as an owner of the freehold ? I would presume you alone still own the leasehold unless at the time of buying it, that cancelled the leasehold and it became freehold only.

As before, my suggestion is - See a solicitor.

silvercar

AuntieMadge wrote: »

Hi, Sorry I didn't see the reply, it's all new to me. I bought the house and the years later bought the freehold with someone, but didn't change the mortgage to joint. We are now going through a separation and I have discovered that his name is on the deeds and I don't know how, unless it was when we purchased the freehold together, it's all a little confusing at the moment but something I need to sort out. Thank you

Sounds like you converted the leasehold ownership of the property to freehold at the time you bought the freehold. This is quite normal, as there is no point having a freehold owning a single leasehold property with the same owner. Your solicitor should have explained this to you at the time.
The mortgage company would have to have been involved as their charge on the property would have moved off the leasehold (that no longer exists) and on to the freehold. There should be paperwork that backs this up; easiest to check is whether the correspondence from the lender is addressed to both of you.
It could be worth getting in touch with the solicitor that acted for you in the purchase of the freehold.