Entitled to more as I paid the mortgage?

Comms69

JLT79 wrote: »

Wow that’s a lot more complex than I thought then. We are joint tenants.

He covered half of the mortgage on the property he lived in to ‘protect his interest’ as he put it. So basically he didn’t lose any of the capital if I paid it off. - Which is exactly what you did?

I presumed that as he had paid no equity off the other property as he paid interest only, that if he entitled to what I had paid on the house I live in

Keep it simple: X (your property mortgage) and y (His property mortgage)


You paid x/2, he paid x/2 + y

JLT79

But he hasn't been paying half of the mortgage for the past 19 months, only I have been paying it, so would that not count as my equity that I have paid off if he has not paid any off the property he lives in?

Tom99

JLT79 wrote: »

But he hasn't been paying half of the mortgage for the past 19 months, only I have been paying it, so would that not count as my equity that I have paid off if he has not paid any off the property he lives in?

How are you taking into account the 25mths he paid 50% of your mortgage and capital repayment on your house, whilst you did not pay any of his?

If you added together all the mortgage payments over the past 4 years and worked out how much you had each paid towards that total cost what sort of answer does that give?

bertiewhite

My ex wife never paid a penny towards our house - deposit, mortgage or bills but was still entitled to half the equity.

getmore4less

if you entered 50:50 and paid 50:50(both properties) then at some point split changed the way you paid then you need valuations at that point and determine who owned the clear equity and who owned the equity now paid by the mortgages

We split up 4 years ago, I stayed in the family home, he moved into our other property. He continued to pay half on the mortgage on the property I live in, until 19months ago when he said he wouldn!!!8217;t contribute any more and I have been paying it myself.
He has paid the mortgage on the property he lives in by himself for the 4 years, but paid interest only.

4 years ago you have the values of the houses and the mortgages on each.

you each owned (value-mortgage)/2 of each(as a % of the value at that time).

house 1. remained 50:50.
house 2 you stopped paying your share of the mortgage so you still own that % ex owned the rest(less the mortgage which is now all his)

19 months ago you each owned house 1 (value-mortgage)/2.

he still owns that % you own the rests less all the outstanding mortgage.