Barclays PPI Mis-Sold but no compensation

redrumgalaxy

Afternoon,

I put in a PPI claim to Barclays for two credit cards who agree I was mis-sold the policy but have not offered any compensation as I didn't pay any premiums (only because I kept card paid off in full).

I thought the mis-selling itself would of attracted some form of compensation due to exposure?

Any ideas or is that a step to far?

BoGoF

So you didn't pay any PPI and there is no financial loss to you but you expect compensation?

Is that really what you are saying?

redrumgalaxy

You are correct, I suffered no loss.

I don't expect anything as I know I didnt' pay any PPI,

Purely as a discussion I wondered if they was any view about being missold in general as it is only my good practice that prevented any loss?

amersall

As you paid the balance in full each month, you did not pay PPI so, you won't be due a refund.
You had it, but did not pay it for the reason above.

Edi81

You shouldn’t have paid your card off in full every month. Then you would have been eligible for compensation.

You have suffered no loss so Barclays are correct that you don’t get any compensation.

No sympathy here.

dunstonh

Purely as a discussion I wondered if they was any view about being missold in general as it is only my good practice that prevented any loss?

Have you lost a limb or had some condition caused by you having PPI on the account but never paying any premiums? Compensation is to cover a loss of something. You have lost nothing.

I thought the mis-selling itself would of attracted some form of compensation due to exposure?

Exposure to what?

redrumgalaxy

So it seems that mis selling is okay provided no payment is made?

In the area of Law I work, attempts carry the same penalty as the offence, mis-selling would be an act that is more than merely preparatory, even if not committed in full or impossible it would carry the full penalty!

BoGoF

Be the test case then

dunstonh

So it seems that mis selling is okay provided no payment is made?

No-one said that.

In the area of Law I work, attempts carry the same penalty as the offence, mis-selling would be an act that is more than merely preparatory, even if not committed in full or impossible it would carry the full penalty!

Yet in most areas of law, attempts are not penalised as strongly as actual. Plus, the PPI issue is not a breach of law. However, if you knew the law, you would know compensation is to cover a loss. So, what loss have you suffered?

redrumgalaxy

If mis-selling is not okay, why is there no penalty just because no loss was incurred?

I am not versed in contract law or tortes, I was referring to Criminal Attempts Act 1981

redrumgalaxy

I'm not saying it is criminal either, although that is also up for debate!