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Paid compensation from court without being victims?
Jlawson118
Posts: 1,144 Forumite
Apologises if this is the wrong section but I can't really find anything else court related. Please point me in the right direction if need be
Back in August we noticed a vehicle parked outside our house with the front numberplate missing. We did nothing about it for a few hours and then watched back the CCTV that we have installed and noticed three suspicious guys getting out of the car. We phoned the non-emergency line and they straight away told us that this was a stolen vehicle.
The police arrived, took a statement and told us there'd been a burglary a few towns away and they stole the keys so they stole the car. Then the car got towed away. We thought that'd be the end of it.
Then my step-dad started getting letters how they'd caught one of the three, he was in court etc. But today received a letter from court stating the charged will be paying him the sum of £170 as ordered by the courts. And we don't understand why. All we did was report a suspicious looking car.
The only reason we can think of is that my step-dad phoned his boss that evening saying he wouldn't be able to do his scheduled 4am start, in front of the police. But we can't imagine they'd have mentioned that in court or in a statement. But apart from that, we suffered no loss, no loss of earnings and just generally we weren't really victims.
Surely there's a mistake?
Back in August we noticed a vehicle parked outside our house with the front numberplate missing. We did nothing about it for a few hours and then watched back the CCTV that we have installed and noticed three suspicious guys getting out of the car. We phoned the non-emergency line and they straight away told us that this was a stolen vehicle.
The police arrived, took a statement and told us there'd been a burglary a few towns away and they stole the keys so they stole the car. Then the car got towed away. We thought that'd be the end of it.
Then my step-dad started getting letters how they'd caught one of the three, he was in court etc. But today received a letter from court stating the charged will be paying him the sum of £170 as ordered by the courts. And we don't understand why. All we did was report a suspicious looking car.
The only reason we can think of is that my step-dad phoned his boss that evening saying he wouldn't be able to do his scheduled 4am start, in front of the police. But we can't imagine they'd have mentioned that in court or in a statement. But apart from that, we suffered no loss, no loss of earnings and just generally we weren't really victims.
Surely there's a mistake?
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Comments
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You'd need to ask the court. No one here knows what happened at the hearing.0
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You don't have to be a victim to be paid an award by a Court, although usually its for the bravery of a witness.Please be polite to OPs and remember this is a site for Claimants and Appellants to seek redress against their bank, ex-boss or retailer. If they wanted morality or the view of the IoD or Bank they'd ask them.0
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Did your Dad lose pay as he didn't get to work?0
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Did your Dad lose pay as he didn't get to work?
I don't think he did. He was supposed to have a 4am start and then he couldn't as the police were at our house until 10/11pm. I can't remember if he went to the job a little later though. But he never put in a claim for loss of earnings or anything
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