We’d like to remind Forumites to please avoid political debate on the Forum.

This is to keep it a safe and useful space for MoneySaving discussions. Threads that are – or become – political in nature may be removed in line with the Forum’s rules. Thank you for your understanding.

PLEASE READ BEFORE POSTING: Hello Forumites! In order to help keep the Forum a useful, safe and friendly place for our users, discussions around non-MoneySaving matters are not permitted per the Forum rules. While we understand that mentioning house prices may sometimes be relevant to a user's specific MoneySaving situation, we ask that you please avoid veering into broad, general debates about the market, the economy and politics, as these can unfortunately lead to abusive or hateful behaviour. Threads that are found to have derailed into wider discussions may be removed. Users who repeatedly disregard this may have their Forum account banned. Please also avoid posting personally identifiable information, including links to your own online property listing which may reveal your address. Thank you for your understanding.
📨 Have you signed up to the Forum's new Email Digest yet? Get a selection of trending threads sent straight to your inbox daily, weekly or monthly!
The Forum now has a brand new text editor, adding a bunch of handy features to use when creating posts. Read more in our how-to guide

Headlease issues advice please

Hi all,

Will try to keep this as simple as possible. We are in the final stages of selling our flat that we have owned for 3.5years - no documentation has changed since we bought it (and remortgaged earlier this year). We have an issue where the buyers solicitor will not proceed unless the headlease title register is transferred - details as follows...

1. Individual A = Freehold title
2. Company B (dormant company) = headlease/Leasehold title
3. Couple C = (me & my wife) underlease/leasehold title
4. Company D = 3rd party that now owns 100% of Company B's shares

Ground rent has never been collected. We got in writing from Company D (on behalf of company B) that no backdated ground rent will be collected up until this year.

However, because the title register is still in company B's name, they will not proceed with exchange unless this is transferred to Company D that owns 100% of their shares.

Does the fact that Company B are a dormant company have any bearing on this issue? We are at a stalemate and neither our solicitor or a 3rd party solicitor can see any prejudice to our buyer (there is a clause in the headlease to vonfirm and has been shared to our buyers solicitor).

Any help/guidance would be so helpful.

Cheers,

One frustrated seller.

Comments

  • eddddy
    eddddy Posts: 18,492 Forumite
    Part of the Furniture 10,000 Posts Name Dropper
    neil_pent wrote: »
    We have an issue where the buyers solicitor will not proceed unless the headlease title register is transferred

    Are you sure that the buyer's solicitors won't proceed? (i.e. They see a legal reason why they cannot proceed.)

    Or is that the buyers won't proceed, based on something their solicitor has advised them (perhaps overreacting, or misunderstanding what the solicitor said)?

    Or is it the mortgage lender that is refusing to proceed?


    Is it perhaps an issue with building management/maintenance? Who manages/maintains the building, if the company that owns the headlease is dormant?
  • G_M
    G_M Posts: 51,977 Forumite
    Part of the Furniture 10,000 Posts Name Dropper Combo Breaker
    Presumably management/maintenance is undertaken by Individual A, unless A has employed Management Company E to do it on his behalf?

    I don't know about company take-overs, but if B were a deceased person, an D was the Beneficiary of B's will, then there would be no need to actually transfer the Title provided the death certificate/will/probate documents were produced.

    I don't see why the same would not apply under company law......
  • eddddy
    eddddy Posts: 18,492 Forumite
    Part of the Furniture 10,000 Posts Name Dropper
    edited 23 August 2017 at 11:41PM
    G_M wrote: »
    Presumably management/maintenance is undertaken by Individual A, unless A has employed Management Company E to do it on his behalf?

    I don't see how that can work.

    Couple C have no relationship (i.e. lease) with Individual A.

    Couple C only have a relationship (i.e. a lease) with Company B.

    So no covenants (e.g. to maintain the building, collect service charges) exist between A and C.

    Covenants can only exist between A and B, as well as between B and C.

    So if Individual A maintains the building, they have no way of enforcing the collection of the service charge from Couple C...

    ...except by using Company B as a 'middleman'. But Company B is dormant, so cannot do any financial transactions.
  • neil_pent
    neil_pent Posts: 5 Forumite
    edited 24 August 2017 at 7:32AM
    Apologies i forgot this amongst the confusing details...our flat is managed by Company E - a RTM company formed of the flat owners (tenants). This company collects service charge and arranges building insurance etc.

    The buyer really wants the flat but the solivitor will not proceed without the transfer of title from B to D. Company B is named in our lease along with Company E. They mentioned something about a tri-party lease but this was closed out uaing a clause in the lease that there is no prejudice to the tennant.

    I wondered if it may be something to do with the mortgage but what could their grievance be? Company B have been silent for about 15yrs with all management etc through company E.

    We have provided proof that Company B is now a dormant company under company D including emails from D confirming the same.

    Thanks all, we are approaching the 7th month of this saga and have a chain of 5 above us...hanging like a thread!
  • eddddy
    eddddy Posts: 18,492 Forumite
    Part of the Furniture 10,000 Posts Name Dropper
    neil_pent wrote: »
    They mentioned something about a tri-party lease but this was closed out uaing a clause in the lease that there is no prejudice to the tennant.

    So that does sound like the buyer's solicitor may be concerned about building management/maintenance etc.

    With a tri-party lease (i.e. a lease with 3 parties), the parties are usually the leaseholder, the head leaseholder (in this case) and the management company.

    The tri-party lease gives the management company a legal obligation to manage the building.
    neil_pent wrote: »
    ...our flat is managed by Company E - a RTM company formed of the flat owners (tenants). This company collects service charge and arranges building insurance etc.

    That might all be working fine at the moment, but given the suggestion of a tri-party lease, there may be a problem with enforcing that legally.

    e.g. If the RTM company decides to refuse to do repairs, or a leaseholder refuses to pay a service charge - there's no way of 'forcing' them to.

    But TBH, I'm not sure how the head leaseholder being a dormant company makes any difference to that.
This discussion has been closed.
Meet your Ambassadors

🚀 Getting Started

Hi new member!

Our Getting Started Guide will help you get the most out of the Forum

Categories

  • All Categories
  • 354K Banking & Borrowing
  • 254.3K Reduce Debt & Boost Income
  • 455.3K Spending & Discounts
  • 247.1K Work, Benefits & Business
  • 603.7K Mortgages, Homes & Bills
  • 178.3K Life & Family
  • 261.2K Travel & Transport
  • 1.5M Hobbies & Leisure
  • 16.1K Discuss & Feedback
  • 37.7K Read-Only Boards

Is this how you want to be seen?

We see you are using a default avatar. It takes only a few seconds to pick a picture.