Ex on the mortgage

Kayalana99

I thought in this situation she would be entitled to 50% of the property value 8 and half years ago, since she has not paid the mortgage and effectively had nothing to do with the property I thought that was the standard way of dealing with it?

vickyb31

Kayalana99 wrote: »

I thought in this situation she would be entitled to 50% of the property value 8 and half years ago, since she has not paid the mortgage and effectively had nothing to do with the property I thought that was the standard way of dealing with it?

Who knows? I think rather than trying to find the answer here, we are going to get some legal advice. It seems there are many differing opinions and I can see the merit in some of the arguments, but I think it is fair to say none of us can be sure what the answer is.

FBaby

send me a cheque and the paperwork to a c/o address and that was the last we heard from her. 1 follow up message was sent to see if she had received the paperwork and she didn't respond.

So did your OH include the cheque? I expect not (and that might not be a bad decision!) but maybe that's the reason she is ignoring him, maybe she worries that if she signs and return, she will never see the money.

It needs to say that he is ready to send the money so can they meet up for her to hand over the signed papers and him the cheque.

justme111

Well the issue has been in the long grass for 8 years, now getting so heated because it is not getting sorted when you want it to in a couple of months is a bit surprising. Fbaby made a good suggestion. I would add not a personal meeting fang style but may be solicitor arranging papers and cheque would be preferable

mattyprice4004

It's so irritating and selfish when people delete posts that may help others in a similar situation in future.

silvercar

I agree. Unless personal information is shown, there are few reasons to remove your OP.

Luckily in this case the post is quoted in #16.

rpc

Kayalana99 wrote: »

I thought in this situation she would be entitled to 50% of the property value 8 and half years ago, since she has not paid the mortgage and effectively had nothing to do with the property I thought that was the standard way of dealing with it?

Why? Ex still owns the house. Absent a court order to the contrary, joint tenants have equal interests in the property.

Many people might agree on the basis of a valuation from the point of separation, but it isn't required. Aside from anything else, the ex has continued to have liability for the mortgage.