Debt question

ollie2008uk

Hi all, I wonder if anyone could throw some light on this for me.

I was self employed some years ago selling 2nd cars, I used a company called Hpi to check car history's etc.

I used to pay my bill every 3 months via debit card around 30-60 per month. I went back to being employed in December 15 and paid what I thought was my last invoice.

However last week I received a bill for around £700 from 2015 up to may 17!

I didn't sign any credit agreement nor does this show on my credit file. If I refuse to pay is there anyway they can default me?

Pixie5740

It depends on your contract with Hpi. Was the contract between you and Hpi, or your company and Hpi?

ollie2008uk

It was with the company but it wasn't a Ltd company. However there is no contract anyway nothing signed

Ben8282

Is the invoice correct? If it is pay up what you owe. If it is not correct dispute it.

macman

A contract was formed when you used the service-no signature is needed.
If you failed to cancel the service then the debt is valid. You didn't have a company, you were presumably a sole trader, in which case the debt is recoverable from you personally, not from your ex-business.

ollie2008uk

Valid point, but I would suggest that they are in fact in the wrong on this. I did ask the account to be closed. Obviously it was not closed. Since the request I have had a new account manager who has decided to do nothing about the account!!

However, my original question has been over looked, how can this affect my credit rating if there is no credit agreement? The only logical way I can see is if they try to recover this debt through a county court judgement? Surely they can't just default me without a credit agreement?

PixelPound

ollie2008uk wrote: »

Valid point, but I would suggest that they are in fact in the wrong on this. I did ask the account to be closed. Obviously it was not closed. Since the request I have had a new account manager who has decided to do nothing about the account!!

However, my original question has been over looked, how can this affect my credit rating if there is no credit agreement? The only logical way I can see is if they try to recover this debt through a county court judgement? Surely they can't just default me without a credit agreement?

It's a SERVICE agreement not a credit agreement - you were provided with a service rather than given credit, just like mobile phone contracts. No signature required, if it goes in default it may be reported to credit file (if the company reports to them - e.g some mobile phone providers report and some don't). It could also end up with a CCJ, if they or a DCA they use or sell to use that route to recover the debt.