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Is this mis-use of estate funds?
Comments
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securityguy wrote: »Can you cite anything which says that a part share in a property is a valid form of payment from the residue of an estate? I can't find anything which says that it is. If it were, it would render moot all those discussions about the payment of costs of sale from the estate: just pass it to the residual beneficiaries to deal with.
For clarity, I am saying that the following would be easily challenged: the payment of a share of the residue of an estate in the form of a share in a property (which was not previously held in shares: obviously, it will be different if the assets of the estate include a share). I don't believe the powers of an executor extend to dividing the beneficial ownership of an asset and then using those shares to fulfil the final distribution of an estate. The reason there isn't an explicit law to say "you're entitled to cash" is because it's implicit in the requirement to obtain fair value and distribute it. Do you have an example of someone passing newly-created shares in a property to unwilling recipients and getting away with it?0 -
"Normally executors are not expected to wheel and deal with estate assets as has been suggested in this case."
Now on that we are absolutely agreed.0
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