had £10700 ppi given and then taken away today

mrpipps

hi everyone i'm new to the site can anyone give advice or help me
today i received a letter stating i'd been given £10700 ppi fees from my bank for the period 1998 to 2002.
but because i went bankrupt 7 years later in 2009 they paid it to the official receiver and i get nothing.
if they had not put the ppi on my debt which i knew nothing about i might not have had to go bankrupt or if they'd have paid me the money they owed me sooner,the £10700, again i would have paid my debts with that money and no need to go bankrupt.
please can anyone advise or give name of someone who can help me.
how can someone owe money for a bankrupcy 7 years before they go bankrupt and how can someone have to pay money that was theirs by law in 2002 and then have it taken off them in 2014?
please help me regards jeanette.

[Deleted User]

Already answered on your duplicate post 45 minutes ago..

However, here's your answer again

Bankrupts cannot ever make PPI complaints and receive anything personally. Redress from PPI complaints is treated as a pre-bankruptcy asset and belongs to the Official Receiver who will use it for redistribution to your former creditors.

This remains the situation how ever long ago you were discharged.

Sorry.

Full details here;
https://forums.moneysavingexpert.com/discussion/3766585

mrpipps

thank you,sorry i'm learning to use the site

dunstonh

but because i went bankrupt 7 years later in 2009 they paid it to the official receiver and i get nothing.

The good news is that your creditors that failed to be repaid when you went bankrupt will now receive some money.

if they had not put the ppi on my debt which i knew nothing about i might not have had to go bankrupt

PPi is usually a relatively small monthly cost. Not the sort of thing that is the difference between solvency an insolvent.

if they'd have paid me the money they owed me sooner,the £10700, again i would have paid my debts with that money and no need to go bankrupt.

It wouldnt have been £10,700 though. A good chunk of that will be interest.

how can someone owe money for a bankrupcy 7 years before they go bankrupt and how can someone have to pay money that was theirs by law in 2002 and then have it taken off them in 2014?

A better question is that how can someone who failed to pay their debts think they should be entitled to money from before their bankruptcy whilst creditors that went unpaid should lose out?