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Default truly satisfied?
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Chappaz
Posts: 138 Forumite

Hi folks.
I've had a default on my file back from 2012 for £14. However, it's been showing as satisfied in my credit reports for the entire duration up to this date, with no money owed in any reports.
I was worried that this may mean the debt has been sold, and that it's technically satisfied for the lender, but still active with a debt collection agency.
So I gave the lender a call, they found the account, and said that no money is owed and that it hasn't been passed on to an agency. Great news. Although I still don't fully trust that as the chap at the call center seemed a bit confused about what I was asking, amongst other reasons.
However, am I right in saying that if the credit reports show the account as closed with £0 balance remaining, and it hasn't been passed to a debt agency so far, then it's pretty much impossible that there could be an outstanding debt which could be passed on at a later date? Is that right?
After all, if no debt agency has been involved, and the balance owed is £0, then it must have been settled and case closed.
I'm just particularly paranoid as it's about a year to go until this finally drops off and I never let any stupid defaults happen ever again.
I've had a default on my file back from 2012 for £14. However, it's been showing as satisfied in my credit reports for the entire duration up to this date, with no money owed in any reports.
I was worried that this may mean the debt has been sold, and that it's technically satisfied for the lender, but still active with a debt collection agency.
So I gave the lender a call, they found the account, and said that no money is owed and that it hasn't been passed on to an agency. Great news. Although I still don't fully trust that as the chap at the call center seemed a bit confused about what I was asking, amongst other reasons.
However, am I right in saying that if the credit reports show the account as closed with £0 balance remaining, and it hasn't been passed to a debt agency so far, then it's pretty much impossible that there could be an outstanding debt which could be passed on at a later date? Is that right?
After all, if no debt agency has been involved, and the balance owed is £0, then it must have been settled and case closed.
I'm just particularly paranoid as it's about a year to go until this finally drops off and I never let any stupid defaults happen ever again.
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