We’d like to remind Forumites to please avoid political debate on the Forum.
This is to keep it a safe and useful space for MoneySaving discussions. Threads that are – or become – political in nature may be removed in line with the Forum’s rules. Thank you for your understanding.
PLEASE READ BEFORE POSTING: Hello Forumites! In order to help keep the Forum a useful, safe and friendly place for our users, discussions around non-MoneySaving matters are not permitted per the Forum rules. While we understand that mentioning house prices may sometimes be relevant to a user's specific MoneySaving situation, we ask that you please avoid veering into broad, general debates about the market, the economy and politics, as these can unfortunately lead to abusive or hateful behaviour. Threads that are found to have derailed into wider discussions may be removed. Users who repeatedly disregard this may have their Forum account banned. Please also avoid posting personally identifiable information, including links to your own online property listing which may reveal your address. Thank you for your understanding.
📨 Have you signed up to the Forum's new Email Digest yet? Get a selection of trending threads sent straight to your inbox daily, weekly or monthly!
The Forum now has a brand new text editor, adding a bunch of handy features to use when creating posts. Read more in our how-to guide
First Time Buyer with Foreign Investment
trilson
Posts: 4 Newbie
I've found myself in a bit of a pickle...
A couple of years ago, my Father and I invested in a French leaseback property together (via bank auction) at a residence in the alps. The apartment is fully managed and leased to CGH (the management company) on a fixed-term contract (with x weeks usage a year for us), however the apartment itself is owned freehold.
I currently rent and work in London, and have recently started looking at moving out into the suburbs. My girlfriend and I have had an offer accepted on a property, however our solicitor is informing us that we will be liable for an additional 3% stamp duty on our purchase due to the apartment in France. This property will be our main residence, however because we don't have an existing property in the UK to sell, HMRC won't recognise it as such (and therefore we're still liable for the 3%).
This seems completely barmy to me -- am I missing anything?
A thought which crossed my mind was if the apartment in France could be classified as a Commercial interest? The leaseback scheme is dependent on the residence being labelled a 'residence de tourisme' in the local area, and as such provides hotel-like services to the short-term guests that stay there (reception, cleaning, etc.).
Any words of wisdom or advice would be greatly appreciated! Thank you.
A couple of years ago, my Father and I invested in a French leaseback property together (via bank auction) at a residence in the alps. The apartment is fully managed and leased to CGH (the management company) on a fixed-term contract (with x weeks usage a year for us), however the apartment itself is owned freehold.
I currently rent and work in London, and have recently started looking at moving out into the suburbs. My girlfriend and I have had an offer accepted on a property, however our solicitor is informing us that we will be liable for an additional 3% stamp duty on our purchase due to the apartment in France. This property will be our main residence, however because we don't have an existing property in the UK to sell, HMRC won't recognise it as such (and therefore we're still liable for the 3%).
This seems completely barmy to me -- am I missing anything?
A thought which crossed my mind was if the apartment in France could be classified as a Commercial interest? The leaseback scheme is dependent on the residence being labelled a 'residence de tourisme' in the local area, and as such provides hotel-like services to the short-term guests that stay there (reception, cleaning, etc.).
Any words of wisdom or advice would be greatly appreciated! Thank you.
0
Comments
-
You're only missing that even if you did sell your French property, it wouldn't come under the 'selling a main residence' rule anyway, as it's not your main residence
My world of wisdom would be either
Sell your 1st property
Or
Get saving for your stamp duty0 -
A thought which crossed my mind was if the apartment in France could be classified as a Commercial interest? The leaseback scheme is dependent on the residence being labelled a 'residence de tourisme' in the local area, and as such provides hotel-like services to the short-term guests that stay there (reception, cleaning, etc.).
Doesn't matter if you consider it commercial or not, an apartment's an apartment.
Is your share in it worth more than £40k?0 -
The share is worth more than £40k, although I'm not sure how this is defined. Nowhere in our documents does it say my father and I own a 50% stake in the property, however I'm guessing this is implied.0
-
You will have to pay the extra 3% stamp duty because you own another property. It doesn't matter where the second property is.0
-
Presumably you're making a profit on your investment. How does that differ from investing in UK property and profiting from that?
Get saving for your stamp duty or rent.0 -
My confusion is with how the system works. If I was already a UK homeowner, I could buy an additional property in France and not pay any penalty. However if it's the other way around (i.e. I have an investment in France but rent in the UK), then I'm stung. This doesn't make sense to me...0
-
My confusion is with how the system works. If I was already a UK homeowner, I could buy an additional property in France and not pay any penalty. However if it's the other way around (i.e. I have an investment in France but rent in the UK), then I'm stung. This doesn't make sense to me...
I don't think you're cut out for this.
Why do French rules have any say in the UK rules?
You have one property. You now want two.
It's really very very very very simple.0 -
Does HMRC know about your foreign property?0
-
I'm not sure what's hard about it.My confusion is with how the system works. If I was already a UK homeowner, I could buy an additional property in France and not pay any penalty. However if it's the other way around (i.e. I have an investment in France but rent in the UK), then I'm stung. This doesn't make sense to me...
If you buy a property in France, the French government's tax rules apply. I have no idea whether the French government have such a rule or not.
If you buy a property in the UK, the UK government's tax rules apply. The UK government says that 3% extra SDLT is payable if you already own another property, UNLESS you are replacing your current main residence.0 -
HMRC quite clear, whether unfair or not is irrelevant, pay it like everyone else does.
https://www.gov.uk/guidance/stamp-duty-land-tax-buying-an-additional-residential-property
If your getting income from your French property, you need to declare it
https://www.gov.uk/tax-foreign-income/overview"It is prudent when shopping for something important, not to limit yourself to Pound land/Estate Agents"
G_M/ Bowlhead99 RIP0
This discussion has been closed.
Confirm your email address to Create Threads and Reply
Categories
- All Categories
- 354.4K Banking & Borrowing
- 254.4K Reduce Debt & Boost Income
- 455.4K Spending & Discounts
- 247.3K Work, Benefits & Business
- 604K Mortgages, Homes & Bills
- 178.4K Life & Family
- 261.5K Travel & Transport
- 1.5M Hobbies & Leisure
- 16K Discuss & Feedback
- 37.7K Read-Only Boards
