Liable for husbands debts?

Jacqueline24

Hello. My husband and I have been separated for a while and I have reason to believe that he is now getting into debt - for example, by not paying utility bills. Although the marital home was always owned by me I believe it is a joint asset as we lived together for 23 years. Only my name is on the title deeds and the mortgage though. My husband lives in a rented house and all the bills would be in his name only there.
I am wondering if his debts become really bad could whoever he owes the money to force the sale of my house, due to the length of our marriage? Or could they make him bankrupt and come after my house? If so, how can I prevent that?

Thanks!

PeacefulWaters

Has a consent order been agreed and signed off by a judge

If so, no problem. If not, problem.

BobQ

A Consent Order is just an agreement, what matters is what it says.

If the house is in your name and you pay the mortgage, unless you have granted him any right to equity in the house by any agreement then the debtors have no claim on the house.

Of course if you have no Consent Agreement explaining the division of your finances, he may still have rights to a share of the property in a divorce settlement but quite difficult for a debt collector to make him get a divorce.

Jacqueline24

Thanks PeacefulWaters and Bobq. We have no consent order but neither have I given any entitlement to equity in any agreement. I am a little worried that if things got bad and someone made him bankrupt, the liquidators could come after my house.