We'd like to remind Forumites to please avoid political debate on the Forum... Read More »
PLEASE READ BEFORE POSTING: Hello Forumites! In order to help keep the Forum a useful, safe and friendly place for our users, discussions around non-MoneySaving matters are not permitted per the Forum rules. While we understand that mentioning house prices may sometimes be relevant to a user's specific MoneySaving situation, we ask that you please avoid veering into broad, general debates about the market, the economy and politics, as these can unfortunately lead to abusive or hateful behaviour. Threads that are found to have derailed into wider discussions may be removed. Users who repeatedly disregard this may have their Forum account banned. Please also avoid posting personally identifiable information, including links to your own online property listing which may reveal your address. Thank you for your understanding.
We're aware that some users are experiencing technical issues which the team are working to resolve. See the Community Noticeboard for more info. Thank you for your patience.
📨 Have you signed up to the Forum's new Email Digest yet? Get a selection of trending threads sent straight to your inbox daily, weekly or monthly!
Possessory rights?
Options
Samantha99
Posts: 89 Forumite
I'm buying a property that has a strip of land, like a driveway, adjacent to it. My vendor has maintained this for over 25 years and used it for parking etc.
The landowner is happy to sell it to me but I'm wondering if I can just claim it?
I've been told no, as an agreement was in place thereby voiding any possessory rights to the land by my vendor. The previous occupant of the house is now deceased.
But does anyone know if that's correct?
The landowner is happy to sell it to me but I'm wondering if I can just claim it?
I've been told no, as an agreement was in place thereby voiding any possessory rights to the land by my vendor. The previous occupant of the house is now deceased.
But does anyone know if that's correct?
0
Comments
-
Well you haven't maintained the property as if it was your own, so you cant claim adverse possession...0
-
Samantha99 wrote: »I've been told no, as an agreement was in place thereby voiding any possessory rights to the land by my vendor. The previous occupant of the house is now deceased.
If the now deceased owner was using the land with the agreement of the owner, he could not have built up any rights to it.0 -
Ok thanks, always worth a try!0
This discussion has been closed.
Confirm your email address to Create Threads and Reply
Categories
- All Categories
- 350.8K Banking & Borrowing
- 253K Reduce Debt & Boost Income
- 453.5K Spending & Discounts
- 243.8K Work, Benefits & Business
- 598.6K Mortgages, Homes & Bills
- 176.8K Life & Family
- 257K Travel & Transport
- 1.5M Hobbies & Leisure
- 16.1K Discuss & Feedback
- 37.6K Read-Only Boards