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House in Multiple Occupation?

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  • CIS
    CIS Posts: 12,260 Forumite
    Part of the Furniture 10,000 Posts Name Dropper
    omissimo1 wrote: »
    I don't think it is clear, hence asking the question. If the property wasn't separated properly by the landlord, even though he claims it to be 2 separate dwellings, it doesn't mean that it is.

    A property doesn't need to be legal for planning purposes to be banded for council tax - the system was written to ensure that creating properties without correct permission wouldn't alter the facts about how the residence was actually used. If it was adapted sufficiently to make it two properties for council tax purposes then it will be banded as such, regardless of other issues.
    I no longer work in Council Tax Recovery but instead work as a specialist Council Tax paralegal assisting landlords and Council Tax payers with council tax disputes and valuation tribunals. My views are my own reading of the law and you should always check with the local authority in question.
  • lincroft1710
    lincroft1710 Posts: 18,905 Forumite
    Part of the Furniture 10,000 Posts Photogenic Name Dropper
    omissimo1 wrote: »
    I don't think it is clear, hence asking the question. If the property wasn't separated properly by the landlord, even though he claims it to be 2 separate dwellings, it doesn't mean that it is.

    If you had given me the answer to the question I asked at the beginning of the thread

    At the time of your occupation what was the accommodation of E and the accommodation of F

    it would be very clear whether or not the property was correctly banded as 2 separate dwellings.

    I'll reiterate CIS's point

    A property doesn't need to be legal for planning purposes to be banded for council tax
    If you are querying your Council Tax band would you please state whether you are in England, Scotland or Wales
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