First Utility charging me for a bill nearly 1 year old

Vistrix

After some quick advice:

First Utilities sent me a letter saying that I needed to pay a £46 bill from 20th February 2015. This is the date I left them and switched suppliers.

I emailed them for more information (because there was no attached breakdown of the usage) and they said they billed me in Feb 2015 for the reading I gave them just before I switched.

They were then given a meter reading from the company I switched to but have only just billed the difference now.

I was just wondering if I have to pay for this sort of thing as it was a while back and also have no way of proving / disproving it.

The bill isn't a large one so it's more about the principle.

Thanks

mrsp1987

I know that energy providers can't bill you for fuel used over 12 months ago, so unfortunately this is within the 12 month window. However, you are well within your rights to ask for a breakdown of the bill asking for an explanation of exactly where the charge has come from. It could be the final months bill from before you switched over but if it were me I'd still want an explanation of what exactly it is and why it has taken them so long for them to issue the bill.
You could also make a complaint and see if they'll reduce it or maybe even write it off as a gesture of good will.
If you come across any barriers go to your local Citizens Advice. A lot of them have specific energy advisers or advisers working on energy projects. Its a hot topic at the moment.
Hope this helps and you get it sorted out

spiro

They can back bill you up to 1 year. When you change supplier it is your new suppliers responsibility to provide the reading to your old supplier. They should obviously provide a bill and not just ask for payment. Ideally you should keep financial records 7 years.

System

mrsp1987 wrote: »

I know that energy providers can't bill you for fuel used over 12 months ago, so unfortunately this is within the 12 month window. However, you are well within your rights to ask for a breakdown of the bill asking for an explanation of exactly where the charge has come from. It could be the final months bill from before you switched over but if it were me I'd still want an explanation of what exactly it is and why it has taken them so long for them to issue the bill.

It is a common mistake that the Back Billing Code applies in all cases - it doesn't. There has to be some action on the part of the customer to try and get a bill.

When does the back-billing principle apply?

Each case is looked at on its own merits; however, the 12 month limit for back-bills may apply in these examples when your supplier has:

• Failed to bill you at all and you have requested bills from them;

• Billed you using estimated meter readings and instead of valid readings provided by you or a meter reader;

• Billed you incorrectly by mixing up meter readings, and failed to act upon information available to put this right;

• Failed to do anything about a query or fault you have raised regarding your account or meter and subsequently allowed a large debt to build up on your account;

• Failed to reassess a payment arrangement (eg. Direct Debit) within 15 months, or failed to reassess based on a reasonable estimate.

WhoIsThat

Vistrix wrote: »

After some quick advice:

First Utilities sent me a letter saying that I needed to pay a £46 bill from 20th February 2015. This is the date I left them and switched suppliers.

I emailed them for more information (because there was no attached breakdown of the usage) and they said they billed me in Feb 2015 for the reading I gave them just before I switched.

They were then given a meter reading from the company I switched to but have only just billed the difference now.

I was just wondering if I have to pay for this sort of thing as it was a while back and also have no way of proving / disproving it.

The bill isn't a large one so it's more about the principle.

Thanks

If I understand you correctly, your old utility supplier has now billed you for some energy they claim you used presumably based on meter readings they have been supplied.

There is no indication by you that the meter was faulty at the time. In fact you have no basis at all on which to question the validity of the bill.

Yet "on principle" you ask whether or not you should pay this debt.

I'm sorry, but either I fail to understand your question correctly or your principles are somewhat different to mine.