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House ownership question

Hi
My partner owns a house which he rents out at present (he stays with a relative).
I've been told that if I buy my own house, and he moves in and pays half the bills, he'd own 50% of my house, as well as all of his own.
We're not marrying.
Is this true? It doesn't seem fair...
P x

Comments

  • jamei305
    jamei305 Posts: 635
    Part of the Furniture 500 Posts Name Dropper
    Forumite
    No it's not true unless his name is on the deeds and you agree to own equal shares or have joint ownership.
  • Mojisola
    Mojisola Posts: 35,574
    Part of the Furniture 10,000 Posts Name Dropper
    Forumite
    If he pays half of the bills like food and utilities, he won't gain any rights.

    If he pays towards the mortgage, he can build up beneficial rights. He would have to go to court to claim money from you which would cost a lot.
  • TBagpuss
    TBagpuss Posts: 11,237
    Part of the Furniture 10,000 Posts Name Dropper
    Forumite
    no, it isn't true. However, you could always get a formal cohabitation agreement drawn up to specifically set out that the two of you agree that he will not acquire any interest in the property even if he contributes to the outgoings.
    All posts are my personal opinion, not formal advice Always get proper, professional advice (particularly about anything legal!)
  • Puddylove
    Puddylove Posts: 507
    Eighth Anniversary Combo Breaker
    Forumite
    So if he pays me 'rent' and we split half the household bills, he could have an interest in the property, unless I get a legal disclaimer.

    So if I had a lodger, would it be the same?
    P x
This discussion has been closed.
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