6 year rule

bekht

A couple of years ago myself and my partner tried to get a mortgage but when we checked our credit ratings he had a default recorded from Barclays for approx £5.5k. He was certain that this had been settled as part of a debt consolidation he had done with previous partner however did not have any paperwork to prove it and she was being less than helpful in trying to find any and claimed no letters in regards to the default had ever been sent to the address.

Originally when he contacted Barclays by phone they said they had no record of the debt and it would be removed from his record. However a couple of weeks later we received a letter (to our new address which he had provided) saying that the debt was still active and would be passed onto a debt collection agency. That was in June 2013 and we haven't heard anything yet. The debt first default on 29th May 2009 according to credit report. Am I right in thinking therefore that the 6 years will be up shortly and it should be removed from his record or have I got confused somehow?

Thanks for any help

fermi

Yes, will be completely removed from his report 6 years from the initial default date.

indierocker85

Challenge with with Barclays and if need be, the financial ombudsman. Barclays put a default on my file as a result of their error, then misinformed me that a default lasted only five years when I settled the loan. They screwed my credit file up big style, and will do to you if not challenged.

pinkjets

Yes, it will come off, I recently got an updated report and a default I had from February 2009 has now come off (it was on my report this time last year).