Buying house from private landlord

corrinney

Just after some help, have tried searching online and have found different answers so wondering if someone can clarify please.
My dad has been privatly renting his house since 1995, his landlady is possibly selling up and my dad has inherited his mothers house last year. This is not suitable for him to move to as it is too small for him and has a good sized garden, something that my dad wouldn't be interested in doing! My sister has been living there but is now moving away.

My question is, if he was to sell my grandmas house, would he be able to buy his current rented house for any less than the market value as he's been there for 20+ years or would it be classed as a regular sale?

Many thanks in advance

G_M

corrinney wrote: »

Just after some help, have tried searching online and have found different answers so wondering if someone can clarify please.
My dad has been privatly renting his house since 1995, his landlady is possibly selling up and my dad has inherited his mothers house last year. This is not suitable for him to move to as it is too small for him and has a good sized garden, something that my dad wouldn't be interested in doing! My sister has been living there but is now moving away.

My question is, if he was to sell my grandmas house, would he be able to buy his current rented house for any less than the market value as he's been there for 20+ years or would it be classed as a regular sale?

Many thanks in advance

Regular sale.

Since the landlord could evict your dad an sell the property at the market value, why should he sell it cheaper to your dad?

Except that he might save on estate agents fees.

But depending on contract, may have to pay letting agent a fee instead!

corrinney

Thanks for the speedy reply, that makes sense, he has an assured tenancy, and I wasn't sure if that made any difference!
Thanks again!

Guest101

It does, it makes eviction very difficult.

The LL would only sell to another LL, so possibly less value.

G_M

corrinney wrote: »

Thanks for the speedy reply, that makes sense, he has an assured tenancy, and I wasn't sure if that made any difference!
Thanks again!

Woul have helped if you'd said that at the start! We're not psychic you know!

I said

Since the landlord could evict your dad an sell the property at the market value, why should he sell it cheaper to your dad?

but since with an AT the LL cannot easily evict, he can also not easily sell for market value, therefore might be willing to sell to your dad at below market value.

Any other relevant info? Is the landlord your grandfather for example......?

Guest101

G_M wrote: »

Woul have helped if you'd said that at the start! We're not psychic you know!

I said
but since with an AT the LL cannot easily evict, he can also not easily sell for market value, therefore might be willing to sell to your dad at below market value.

Any other relevant info? Is the landlord your grandfather for example......?

To be fair ( slightly ) to the OP they said he'd been there 20+ years. But I agree it wasn't fully obvious

corrinney

The landlord is not my grandfather and there is no need to be rude.
Thank you for answering the question.

45002

corrinney wrote:

Just after some help, have tried searching online and have found different answers so wondering if someone can clarify please.
My dad has been privatly renting his house since 1995, his landlady is possibly selling up and my dad has inherited his mothers house last year. This is not suitable for him to move to as it is too small for him and has a good sized garden, something that my dad wouldn't be interested in doing! My sister has been living there but is now moving away.

My question is, if he was to sell my grandmas house, would he be able to buy his current rented house for any less than the market value as he's been there for 20+ years or would it be classed as a regular sale?

Many thanks in advance

corrinney

Your Dad does not have to move out if LL is selling Up.

you moved in between 15 January 1989 and 27 February 1997 and your landlord did not give you a notice (section 20) saying that you have an assured shorthold tenancy

http://england.shelter.org.uk/get_advice/private_renting/private_renting_agreements/assured_tenancies

A section 20 notice is

About 3/4 down this page http://www.legislation.gov.uk/uksi/1...schedules/made

FORM No. 7
Housing Act 1988 section 20 Notice of an Assured Shorthold Tenancy

Was one of theses notices served on your dad when the tenancy 1st started ?

If the answer is No, Dad going to have a Assured tenancy !

agrinnall

45002 wrote: »

If the answer is No, Dad going to have a Assured tenancy !

We all knew that already, why didn't you?

corrinney wrote: »

Thanks for the speedy reply, that makes sense, he has an assured tenancy, and I wasn't sure if that made any difference!
Thanks again!

45002

agrinnall wrote:

We all knew that already, why didn't you?

But do you know if a s20 notice was served on the tenant as per

http://www.legislation.gov.uk/ukpga/1988/50/section/20

S20, (2) (b)

If a LL can prove such a notice was issued at the start of the tenancy corrinney Dad can be Evicted via s21 route.

AdrianC

agrinnall wrote: »

We all knew that already, why didn't you?

TBF, the difference between the terms "assured tenancy" and "assured shorthold tenancy" is subtle enough that it really does need to be triple-clarified.