We’d like to remind Forumites to please avoid political debate on the Forum.
This is to keep it a safe and useful space for MoneySaving discussions. Threads that are – or become – political in nature may be removed in line with the Forum’s rules. Thank you for your understanding.
PLEASE READ BEFORE POSTING: Hello Forumites! In order to help keep the Forum a useful, safe and friendly place for our users, discussions around non-MoneySaving matters are not permitted per the Forum rules. While we understand that mentioning house prices may sometimes be relevant to a user's specific MoneySaving situation, we ask that you please avoid veering into broad, general debates about the market, the economy and politics, as these can unfortunately lead to abusive or hateful behaviour. Threads that are found to have derailed into wider discussions may be removed. Users who repeatedly disregard this may have their Forum account banned. Please also avoid posting personally identifiable information, including links to your own online property listing which may reveal your address. Thank you for your understanding.
📨 Have you signed up to the Forum's new Email Digest yet? Get a selection of trending threads sent straight to your inbox daily, weekly or monthly!
is this right

mutley74
Posts: 4,033 Forumite


i have been looking at a house which i have an offer on (not accepted yet) but vendor history of the house reveals it was listed in 2009 for £240k....but vendor bought it from his relative for £155k (property price record) on Jan 2010. Can a vendor buy a house from a relative so cheaply? (it was his deceased relatibe house)
house is now up with vacant possession as vendor wants quick sale.
house is now up with vacant possession as vendor wants quick sale.
0
Comments
-
Yes of course they can, anybody can sell anything for whatever price they want (there may be a few exceptions with price controls, but houses certainly aren't one of them).0
-
Not too sure about that. Lets say I find a house to buy for 550k and the owner just happens to want mine valued at 300k, the transaction is being done privately with no estate agents and both have not been previously sold for a good number of years. I say to the owner reduce yours by 100k and i'll reduce mine by the same percentage bringing both our properties under the higher stamp duty thresholds. What do you reckon Mr Taxman will say...if he finds out. Looking at your example above I would imagine questions would definately be asked.0
-
Not too sure about that. Lets say I find a house to buy for 550k and the owner just happens to want mine valued at 300k, the transaction is being done privately with no estate agents and both have not been previously sold for a good number of years. I say to the owner reduce yours by 100k and i'll reduce mine by the same percentage bringing both our properties under the higher stamp duty thresholds. What do you reckon Mr Taxman will say...if he finds out. Looking at your example above I would imagine questions would definately be asked.
SDLT is a different matter. You can sell your house for whatever BUT if it's artificially low then HMRC will want the tax payment at the true market value.0 -
If buying undervalue from a relative;-
there are lenders which will accept the discount as deposit and
SDLT is based on the actual consideration paid, not the true value.
For CGT purposes, the true value is taken into account, if required.I am a mortgage broker. You should note that this site doesn't check my status as a Mortgage Adviser, so you need to take my word for it. This signature is here as I follow MSE's Mortgage Adviser Code of Conduct. Any posts on here are for information and discussion purposes only and shouldn't be seen as financial advice. Please do not send PMs asking for one-to-one-advice, or representation.0 -
Whether its right ir not is academic. Its completely historical and has absolutely no bearing on your interest/purchase.Eat vegetables and fear no creditors, rather than eat duck and hide.0
-
kingstreet wrote: »If buying undervalue from a relative;-
there are lenders which will accept the discount as deposit and
SDLT is based on the actual consideration paid, not the true value.
For CGT purposes, the true value is taken into account, if required.
So what I said above is wrong?0 -
In davisc's example, these are connected transactions with what appears to be an intent at tax evasion. The solicitors on the case may have an issue.
In the example I used of a relative selling at undervalue, the consideration is the amount paid and the stamp duty is based on that, not the value.
I was clarifying, not contradicting. Hence I didn't quote you.I am a mortgage broker. You should note that this site doesn't check my status as a Mortgage Adviser, so you need to take my word for it. This signature is here as I follow MSE's Mortgage Adviser Code of Conduct. Any posts on here are for information and discussion purposes only and shouldn't be seen as financial advice. Please do not send PMs asking for one-to-one-advice, or representation.0 -
kingstreet wrote: »In davisc's example, these are connected transactions with what appears to be an intent at tax evasion. The solicitors on the case may have an issue.
In the example I used of a relative selling at undervalue, the consideration is the amount paid and the stamp duty is based on that, not the value.
I was clarifying, not contradicting. Hence I didn't quote you.
Hi -I was just trying to work out if my understanding is wrong, and it would appear to be so.
So just to be sure, if I sell my £5m home to my mum for £250k she only pays stamp duty on the £250K?
That seems wrong to me but I'm happy to be corrected0 -
Hi -I was just trying to work out if my understanding is wrong, and it would appear to be so.
So just to be sure, if I sell my £5m home to my mum for £250k she only pays stamp duty on the £250K?
That seems wrong to me but I'm happy to be corrected
there is no link between "market value" and chargeable consideration unless other factors are at play - such as there being a linked transaction
read the rules...
http://www.hmrc.gov.uk/sdlt/
http://www.hmrc.gov.uk/sdlt/calculate/linked-transfers.htm0 -
in a straightforward transaction like that where your mother gets a £5m property and you get £250k cash in exchange for it the "chargeable consideration" is 250k not 5m so SDLT is based on 250k
there is no link between "market value" and chargeable consideration unless other factors are at play - such as there being a linked transaction
read the rules...
http://www.hmrc.gov.uk/sdlt/
http://www.hmrc.gov.uk/sdlt/calculate/linked-transfers.htm
Thanks for clarifying. Every day is a school day.0
This discussion has been closed.
Confirm your email address to Create Threads and Reply

Categories
- All Categories
- 352K Banking & Borrowing
- 253.5K Reduce Debt & Boost Income
- 454.2K Spending & Discounts
- 245K Work, Benefits & Business
- 600.6K Mortgages, Homes & Bills
- 177.4K Life & Family
- 258.7K Travel & Transport
- 1.5M Hobbies & Leisure
- 16.2K Discuss & Feedback
- 37.6K Read-Only Boards