2 entries on credit report for 1 debt
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Bonfire_Bride
Posts: 710 Forumite
My hubby and I are looking to apply for a mortgage early 2015. He is currently paying off a debt which occured before we met in 2003. This is due to be fully paid on 01/09/2014. (we appreciate we will need a subprime lender).
It defaulted with a credit card company and was passed to a Debt collecting agency. The only thing is it is noted on his credit file as two seperate defaults.
The credit card companies info show the amount as being £2000 and this has not been updated since 2010. It is showing as unsettled with the £2000 still oweing.
The debt collection agency also (correctly) shows the outstanding balance of £17.
Is this correct? we spoke to Experian who said they would look into it, but came back to us saying it was correct.
My husband has 2 black marks against his name for the same debt. Do we need to write to the credit card company to ask them either to a) remove it or b) update it so that it is showing as fully settled?
Or is this information accurate and should be put a notice of correction on his file to point this out to future creditors?
Many Thanks.
It defaulted with a credit card company and was passed to a Debt collecting agency. The only thing is it is noted on his credit file as two seperate defaults.
The credit card companies info show the amount as being £2000 and this has not been updated since 2010. It is showing as unsettled with the £2000 still oweing.
The debt collection agency also (correctly) shows the outstanding balance of £17.
Is this correct? we spoke to Experian who said they would look into it, but came back to us saying it was correct.
My husband has 2 black marks against his name for the same debt. Do we need to write to the credit card company to ask them either to a) remove it or b) update it so that it is showing as fully settled?
Or is this information accurate and should be put a notice of correction on his file to point this out to future creditors?
Many Thanks.
0
Comments
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No, isn't correct.
It should only show as one. Speak to both of them inform them of the issue.0 -
Thank you!
I shall write to the both of them - shall I enclose a screen shot of the credit file so that they have the evidence too?
Is there anything I should enclose or just simply point out the facts?
Thanks again!0 -
Fermi is better on these things than me. Wait for their reply.0
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Depends what the original entry says.
If it is marked with something like "debt assigned to CAIS member" them it is OK to have both as only YOU see the original default.
If there is nothing marking the original as assigned/sold, then Experian are wrong and you should not have both.Free/impartial debt advice: National Debtline | StepChange Debt Charity | Find your local CAB
IVA & fee charging DMP companies: Profits from misery, motivated ONLY by greed0 -
It's definitely a 2nd default - no mention of it being transferred elsewhere. It's showing as the full amount outstanding. I'm just about to write them a letter to request it is removed, but is there any legislation/info that I can include to make sure it is removed?
Thanks Fermi - would it be worth contacting Experian again to see if they will remove it? Or just go directly to the original lender?
Many Thanks0 -
Please send us details so we can review this for you - uksocialsupport@experian.com
Thanks
James Jones“Official Company Representative
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Posts by James Jones, Neil Stone, Stuart Storey & Joe Standen0 -
Thank You very much.
You have mail.0 -
Thank you to experian for swiftly dealing with this - very impressed and look forward to hearing the outcome.0
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