Tenant received gas bill although he doesn't use gas

syncopy

Hi,

I moved to my current flat as a tenant since two years ago. When I moved in, the estate agency told my that the only energy here is electricity and that there is a disconnected gas meter in the flat which I should ignore.

During these two years, I received bills from EDF with the name of a previous tenant which I returned to EDF since he no longer lives here.

Today I received a gas bill from EDF with my name for the first time. It shows zero consumption (which is true) but with 'standing charges' of about £200 over two years.

When I called EDF, they explain that last week they received my name from my estate agency as the actual tenant over the last two years. They said that as long as there is an installed gas meter, such bills should be paid even with zero consumption.

My question is: Is it my responsibility to pay the bill although I'm told from the beginning not to use the gas and to ignore the meter? Shouldn't the landlord pay for it?

Thanks

Voyager2002

Did you sign an agreement with EDF, or do anything to open an account with them for gas supply? If not, they could not enforce anything against you.

I suspect that this is an error by EDF, and that they failed to make a proper note of the disconnection of the gas supply. So I suggest that you make a polite enquiry to your agent and landlord, requesting confirmation of the date when the supply was disconnected. That should be enough to send EDF away to check their records.

syncopy

I never signed anything with EDF nor contacted them before.

When I called them today, they explained that: they are the current supplier of the flat and there is a gas meter ==> there are at least standing charges over that period.

I will contact my agent today..

Bluebirdman_of_Alcathays

This has little to do with your agent, the only people that can write this off is edf.

What Voyager has said is incorrect, you don't have to sign anything to enter a gas contract, a deemed contract exists where a supplier begins to supply gas to the consumer otherwise than in pursuance of contract http://www.legislation.gov.uk/ukpga/1986/44

Indeed deemed contracts are common, we all enter one the moment we switch on that first lightbulb in a new home.

The difficulty here is what constitutes supply? edf clearly think providing a gas meter constitutes supply. OFGEM happen to think that gas has to be consumed. Until it's tested in court, this impasse will continue. Considering the standing charge is to recover fixed costs such as maintaining pipework and safety checks (which they will still have to perform in this case), the energy companies would stand a better chance than most people might think.

OP, in practise, a letter to edf informing them that the meter is disconnected and you've never taken supply of gas should be enough to get them off your back.

lstar337

Bluebirdman_of_Alcathays wrote: »

OP, in practise, a letter to edf informing them that the meter is disconnected and you've never taken supply of gas should be enough to get them off your back.

This^

Write a letter headed 'complaint' and say that you have never used any gas at all, and that Ofgem say that the contract should start when gas is consumed and therefore you never had a contract with them.

This would hopefully get them off your back.

Bluebirdman_of_Alcathays wrote: »

This has little to do with your agent, the only people that can write this off is edf.

While true, it was irresponsible for the letting agent to say the gas meter was not your responsibility. They were completely wrong about that. I doubt that you would even be able to get them to admit they ever said it, let alone give you any compensation.

macman

Is the gas supply actually disconnected? Does gas flow when you open the valve by the meter?
If not, how is the property heated and hot watered-are there any gas appliances?
The LL or agent turning the supply off at the meter does not constitute 'disconnection'.
Any dispute with the LL or agent is a third party dispute and of no interest to EDF, it's you they have a contract with-or not.

syncopy

Thanks to you all.

The property has communal central heating which is included in the price along with hot water. I have no idea whether opening the valve will allow gas flow. I think I shouldn't try it myself.

It is worth to mention that an agent from EDF comes periodically to take the reading of the meter which has stayed the same since I moved in.

societys_child

Humm, it could all depend on the EAs definition of "disconnected"

edit:

It is worth to mention that an agent from EDF comes periodically to take the reading of the meter which has stayed the same since I moved in.

Yes, that makes a big difference as EDF have obviously believed the supply was still live (which it appears to be) from the day you moved in and have been billing the previous tenant . .

lstar337

syncopy wrote: »

I have no idea whether opening the valve will allow gas flow. I think I shouldn't try it myself.

No, do not do it. As well as being dangerous it would constitute taking a supply and start a contract, which is exactly the thing you are about to argue you have never done.

StuC75

Is it the case that there is a meter still in the property but that its output has been disconnected \ capped off so as not to use but... but edf still few it as a metered property, since the meter is still physically there?? and so that is why the standing charge still applies...

Pincher

It took me years to realise, the reason the offices I worked in were dust and odour free was because an office manager has an army of cleaners, plumbers, electricians and elevator engineers keeping it that way. Unfortunately, your landlord is just you with an extra house, with no army of maintenance and admin team behind him. If you don't want to know, neither does he.


It's your bill, but you can try to guilt him into paying for the gas bill, AND paying for disconnection.