Same potential buyer "introduced" by multiple agencies

princeofpounds

where does the obligation to agent 1 end

I *think* there are generally accepted periods used by the Estate Agents associations and the courts too.

But it's quite a long time, something like a year or two.

Just can't rememember where I was reading about that.

DRP

lorrainp wrote: »

Thanks for all the help so far guys.

Both Agent 1 and Agent 2 had Sole Agency, not Sole Selling.

And Mr Buyer's name IS on the list of people who've already viewed, which was passed to Agent 2 at the start of their appointment.

I'll read the link that Princeofpounds posted.

So you should have absolutely no problem - if EA2 kicks up a fuss, he is just trying it on.

The whole point of the list/document is to prevent the situation where 2 agents think they deserve a fee.

What will EA2 do? go to court? with that list in your hand, surely he'll be laughed out of there...

lorrainp

New information - we now have reason to believe that Agent 2 might have rung Mr Buyer (who just happened to be on their database) about the property, rather than Mr Buyer ringing them.
That puts a different slant on things.


So, I think the way forward is for Mr Seller to ring Agent 2 and say:
- Get clarification on who made contact about the property, and;
- We think this is really Agent 1's buyer, and therefore please ring Agent 1 and sort it out with him. No viewings to be arranged with Mr Buyer until they've agreed the way forward and notified Mr Seller in writing.

Then email Agent 1 saying that he should expect a phone call from Agent 2 (don't say what about yet), asking for him to contact us if this doesn't happen so we can chase it.

I'll keep you posted.

ConfusedofYorkshire

So agent 2 are making out like it was a coincidence that they rang the buyer, they just happened to also have a list which showed the buyer was interested?

Sounds more like they looked down agent 1s list of people interested and did some ringing around....