Pension Credit / Mortgage interest assistance

gprit

Am I correct in believing that we should be entitled to mortgage interest assistance?
I was in receipt of Guaranteed Pension Credit as I was under 65. My wife was over 65 and so not entitled to claim. Less that 16k savings etc etc.
However, the house we live in was in the name of my wife only, even though ALL mortgage payments have been made by me out of my own account.

Am I entitled to claim this assistance?

Teahfc

You say your wife's name only was on the deeds or still is the only person named on the deeds ?

gprit

Thanks for the comments. It's a little complicated but sadly my wife died a while ago (no will but everything was left to me). Haven't actually changed the name on the property as it costs quite a bit to do so!
There is a bit of a dispute whether I could claim as the property was hers and I was the one receiving GPC (even though as I said I made all mortgage payments).

Icequeen99

gprit wrote: »

Thanks for the comments. It's a little complicated but sadly my wife died a while ago (no will but everything was left to me). Haven't actually changed the name on the property as it costs quite a bit to do so!
There is a bit of a dispute whether I could claim as the property was hers and I was the one receiving GPC (even though as I said I made all mortgage payments).

Sorry to hear about the loss of your wife. Are you talking about claiming GPC after she passed away? Or when she was alive?

IQ

cbrown372

Is this the wife from Thailand who was expecting a baby? Didn't sound like she was over 65?

GrungeMeister

The OP's wife died I assume & he's met a new partner, who's now expecting ? That what he means ?

Anyway. Doesn't matter about the legalities of house ownership. Doesn't even matter whether the mortgage is in his name. The OP lives in the house, the burden to pay the mortgage lies with the OP. He has to pay the mortgage otherwise he'll be out on the street.

The decision maker might consider it reasonable for the state to contribute towards the mortgage interest payments in such circumstances.

poppasmurf_bewdley

Surely, if the house was in your late wife's name, the mortgage will have ceased and become due for repayment.

Who did she leave the house to? What is happening about probate?

Something is not quite right here.

xylophone

I have a property with no equity in it after repaying mortage and other loans. I have been trying to sell this for some time and in order to pay the mortgage to avoid repossession I rented it out, although the rental does not actually cover the mortgage payment - so there is no real income from rental.
I have no other income/savings and have been staying in another property owned by my late wife (again no equity in it).
As I AM trying to sell my property and get no disposable income from it, does this affect my entitlement to Guaranteed Pension Credit?

The above post was dated 2011.

I have substantial unsecured debts (due to property crash) and there is no prospect of clearing these by repaying/IVA, as my income is not going to increase. For some time I have agreed with all creditors to pay nominal £1 each month as my current income/outgoings broadly match.
I have no other assets, and there is no equity in my current small house. I have been looking into declaring bankruptcy as a way of clearing these debts and moving forward BUT I have been told there might be one big problem in doing this.
This is that my fiancee lives in Thailand and we are expecting a child in May (we will get married next year). I have been sending her £250 a month towards renting a place and to support her (food etc), while we apply for a UK Visa. It has been mentioned to me that if I applied for bankruptcy then the OR would not allow any money to be sent for support.
Is this correct, as it seems callous that my future wife and her child would be left destitute?

And the above October 2012.

Presumably the OP and his new wife and child are living in his late wife's property?

evenasus

I think I understand now.

NYM

evenasus wrote: »

I think I understand now.

I still don't...:(
Can you explain it to me..:D

I'm very confused by this thread...:(

gprit

Let me try and clarify.
My wife died January 2011. Property fully mortgaged ...Probate granted...I inherited all. Mortgage has not been transferred to me in name as the lender considers it 'new lending' and they are not lending any more, so would not transfer. They have given me time to find a solution. there are (never have been) any arrears.
New partner /baby....we are renting a house in Thailand, although plan to apply for her to come to UK (son has British passport).
The claim for interest assistance under GPC has a history going back to before she died.