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Why are some councils refusing to sell to FTBs
Comments
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PasturesNew wrote: »The answer is that if the house is sold without that clause then the Govt gets most of the money.
By inserting that clause it's a loophole that means the Council retain more of the money.
This has been explained on the programme in the past.
My answer is the correct answer because I have answered the specific question being asked and have heard the answer explained on the programme and understand that the question exists for those that watch HutH and don't listen
It might also to do with the way councils have to use the proceeds of council house sales to set aside against *their* housing related debts. That might be what they mean by the 'government getting the money'.0 -
There's nothing stopping one family member buying the property on behalf of another family member who actually wants it and then selling it on at a small agreed profit to said family member.Never Knowingly Understood.
Member #1 of £1,000 challenge - £13.74/ £1000 (that's 1.374%)
3-6 month EF £0/£3600 (that's 0 days worth)0
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