Care home cost assessment

tumboodle

SandraScarlett wrote: »

Has your Grandfather been cared for by one/all of his children since his wife died, and lived with them? If not, has he been living in rented property.


If he moved in with one of his children, and has lived as part of the family, without any other carers, then it could be argued that he, and they, expected this to continue, and it is only since his Parkinsons has got worse, that living in a Care Home has even been considered.


xx

I was thinking the same. Grandma dies so Granddad thought it best to off load his biggest asset and spread the proceeds amongst everyone but himself. As you point out - where has he been living for the past 3 years? Presumably in his old house rent free?

The question of care came up before Grandma died so it is logical to accept that that he knew all about having to pay for care.

Just believing that he should have known all about care payments is enough for the council to claw the money back.

This is such an obvious case of intentional deprivation that will see those that received the money having to hand it over to the council.

If the property had been disposed of in this way 25 years ago when they were both alive and well citing that it was their intention to travel the world it would probably be a different story.

Bogof_Babe

tumboodle wrote: »

I was thinking the same. Grandma dies so Granddad thought it best to off load his biggest asset and spread the proceeds amongst everyone but himself. As you point out - where has he been living for the past 3 years? Presumably in his old house rent free?
.

How could he be living in his old house rent-free when it has been sold and the proceeds distributed? Unless you're suggesting that one of his offspring bought it?

cavework

Not true,
We don't know what Grandads income is.. he may have had enough income to rent a sheltered home , he may have investments and a big pension, There are not enough details from the OP here to make a fair judgement
Just because he needed care for a 2 week period a few years ago does not mean that it could be assumed he would need to cover the costs of a care home in the future.

PasturesNew

Well, the three lucky recipients wil now have to find 1/3rd of his fees every week. Simples.

tumboodle

Bogof_Babe wrote: »

How could he be living in his old house rent-free when it has been sold and the proceeds distributed? Unless you're suggesting that one of his offspring bought it?

That's normally the case but Granddad here seems not to have received any of the money.

However if Granddad actually sold it to an unconnected 3rd party via an Estate Agent the proceeds would have been in his name even if for only an hour or so, before they were distributed - that is damning evidence. This then makes my question even more important - where has he been living?

cavework

Mine too , and don't forget if Grandad and his wife were tenants in common then it is perfectly acceptable that on sale of the house and with his agreement 50% of the proceeds of the sale went to Grandmas children if that was stated in the will , leaving Grandad 50% for his new home.

troubleinparadise

cavework wrote: »

Not true,
We don't know what Grandads income is.. he may have had enough income to rent a sheltered home , he may have investments and a big pension, There are not enough details from the OP here to make a fair judgement
Just because he needed care for a 2 week period a few years ago does not mean that it could be assumed he would need to cover the costs of a care home in the future.

If the LA are making a financial assessment, then he must be seeking funding and falls below the upper threshold of £23,250.

A diagnosis of a progressively degenerating neurological disease such as Parkinson's would indicate that there would be a likelihood of needing care, whether at home or residential, in the future.

On occasion it might be assessed that the person might qualify for NHS Continuing Healthcare, but this cannot be guaranteed, and even if awarded might be withdrawn if the assessment changes.

If the two weeks of care was funded by himself at that time, then self-funding in the future, especially if a house owner, would be expected.

cavework

nicful1985 wrote: »

Firstly sorry if I have posted this in the wrong place!

I'm looking for some advice about the assessment process for eligibility to pay care home costs. My Grandfather has Parkinsons disease and his condition has recently deteriorated to the point where he has to go into a home. He sold his house 3 years ago after the passing of my Grandmother and gave the money from this to his children (my mother, aunt and uncle). The authorities have begun to assess his income to judge how much he has to pay towards his care but they have informed us that they intend to include the money from the sale of his house. They are claiming that because my Grandfather had 2 weeks of care assistance when my Grandmother was in hospital we should have known he would eventually need to go into a care home and the money should have been kept for this.

My question is can they do this? This money has not been his for 3 years and in fact no longer exists as the people he gave it to have spent it on various things!

Any advice will be greatly appreciated.

This is the Grand child asking for advice not someone who may have benefited from the sale of the property, without all the facts it is very difficult to give advice.
The first question is ,, where has Grandad been living for the past 3 years?

tumboodle

cavework wrote: »

Mine too , and don't forget if Grandad and his wife were tenants in common then it is perfectly acceptable that on sale of the house and with his agreement 50% of the proceeds of the sale went to Grandmas children if that was stated in the will , leaving Grandad 50% for his new home.

I personally don't know anybody that has that set up. Most just have joint ownership like we do.

tumboodle

troubleinparadise wrote: »

If the LA are making a financial assessment, then he must be seeking funding and falls below the upper threshold of £23,250.

A diagnosis of a progressively degenerating neurological disease such as Parkinson's would indicate that there would be a likelihood of needing care, whether at home or residential, in the future.

On occasion it might be assessed that the person might qualify for NHS Continuing Healthcare, but this cannot be guaranteed, and even if awarded might be withdrawn if the assessment changes.

If the two weeks of care was funded by himself at that time, then self-funding in the future, especially if a house owner, would be expected.

I thought that only 'nursing medical care' would be provided by the state. Any 'social or personal care' always has to be privately funded if you are able.

My own father who is in hospital at the moment has a great deal of medical problems, double incontinence, heart failure, liver cancer, stage 4 kidney failure. He is severely dehydrated and hasn't eaten for over 2 weeks.

Yet his needs are met entirely by medication (treating the symptoms only). The vast majority of his needs are personal care & social care (washing, toilet, dressing, food prep etc)

All of his home carers are being paid for privately as would any care home that he goes into. He is deemed not to require any nursing care in his assessment.

He had a financial assessment and as his home was jointly owned with mum (she died 10 years ago) it has been treated as an asset as has his invested capital.