Broken boots, no receipt. Any hope of an exchange?

Kitty34

I bought some knee high boots from Dune in John Lewis about 6 weeks ago. They were £150 and I have worn them about 15 times and the zip has broke. Unfortunately I've no longer got the receipt. I did buy them on a credit card so I have a record of the transaction.

Am I entitled to a refund or exchange? Or do I just have to accept the loss:(

Thanks.

hollydays

Yes, a credit card receipt is proof of purchase.
Repair, exchange or refund may be offered.

hollydays

They may offer to repair, but I think that's unlikely

pops5588

Something similar happened with me with a pair of boots except it was the sole of the shoe that broke. I took in the bank statement to show the transaction and was given an exchange for a new pair.

£150 for 6 weeks wear isn't really great is it? I should hope they would give you an exchange without much of a fuss.

Kitty34

Thanks. I've just checked the statement and it's actually only one month since I bought them. My last pair of boots lasted 4 winters, so 1 month is pretty rubbish. I'll take them back and hopefully they will exchange them. I love the boots so will take an exchange rather than a refund (although I'm not too confident that a second pair will be much better).

By the way, how is a credit card proof of purchase. All it shows to me is that I spent £149 at John Lewis, it doesn't say what the item is. Can they use the ref number on the statement to identify the item? Just curious!

InsideInsurance

The civil legal system works on the "balance of probability" (unlike the criminal system which works on "beyond reasonable doubt"). As such the burden of proof is much lower.

Ideally you would have the receipt however having an almost new pair of boots, a statement showing a transaction for the amount the boots were at the date required etc, the boots being the right model, the store stocking that model etc all adds up to the likelihood that you did buy them (unless they have records showing they didnt sell any within months of that date nor any misc items for that price entered)

George_Michael

Probably the main reason for the law stating that a receipt does not have to be provided when enforcing your statutory rights is down to the fact that a retailer is not legally obligated to provide a receipt when you make a purchase.
A credit or debit card statement, a customer loyality scheme statement, an e-mail acknowledgement of purchase etc are all proof of purchase (although using some of these may mean it takes the retailer a while to find the actual transaction on their system.)

InsideInsurance

George_Michael wrote: »

Probably the main reason for the law stating that a receipt does not have to be provided when enforcing your statutory rights is down to the fact that a retailer is not legally obligated to provide a receipt when you make a purchase.

They are legally obliged to provide a receipt on request if they are VAT registered.

To the best of my knowledge "the law" in question doesnt state anything about receipts one way or the other but simply states the customer must have proof of purchase and then leaves the courts to ultimately decide what it considers sufficient as proof of purchase.

Kitty34

Just thought I'd update in case anyone had a similar question. John Lewis were indeed happy to accept my credit card statement as proof of purchase and exchanged the boots for a new pair without any fuss.