Sold on debt doesnt reflect default

Stewart_78

I had a CC with Barclaycard and when it all went wrong they didn't default me, just kept putting on late markers (2010). The debt was sold on to Cabot in late 2011 who had been marking it AP although since I had to lower my payment amount, they too have been adding late markers (using 5 for the last 4 months etc).

I wrote to Barclaycard stating that I felt they should have defaulted the account as of 2010 and they agreed. They updated the closed account on all files to default date Sept 2010 and all entries after that are marked D. So far so good. Cabot, who bought the debt have not updated the account to reflect the default date. I have written to ask them to do this but no reply.

My question is, should the open Cabot account show the default date and D markers from the time it was bought or could they try to say it is a different account?

At the moment 2016 is the year all this junk falls off my report but I guess only if they mark it with the correct default date.

fermi

If the old Barclaycard entry says default, then so should Cabot's.

Write/email them again and demand they amend the record to match. State that if they refuse you will take the natter to the ICO and FOS.

izools

Are you saying you have two separate entries on your credit file for the same debt? There should only be one. Cabot or Barclaycard must remove their entry altogether - expunge it.

Stewart_78

Thanks Fermi, that's what I thought. Izools, I'm looking at Noddle which shows closed accounts as well as open ones. The BC account shows as a closed account. It doesn't show on the open accounts list, just the sold on Cabot account. I should have made that clear.

izools

So then you do have two entries for one account. Doesn't matter whether one is closed, this is error sous and you should dispute the duplicate entries with both parties